"Softly speaking I ask"?

Question

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Doesn't 1 Corinthians 16:1, 2 speak of Sunday school offerings?
1 Corinthians 16:2
No, there is no reference here to a public meeting. The money was to be laid aside privately at home. A famine was raging in Judea (Romans 15:26; Acts 11:26-30), and Paul was writing to ask the churches in Asia Minor to assist their famine-stricken brethren. These Christians all kept Sabbath holy, so Paul suggested that on Sunday morning (which was the time they paid bills and settled accounts), after the Sabbath was over, they put aside something for their needy brethren so it would be on hand when he came. It was to be done privately or, as La Santa Biblia (a Spanish translation) says, "at home." Notice also that there is no reference here to Sunday as a holy day. In fact, the Bible nowhere commands or even suggests Sundaykeeping.
But isn't John 20:19 the record of the disciples instituting Sundaykeeping in honor of the resurrection?
John 20:19
On the contrary, the disciples at this time did not believe that the resurrection had taken place (Mark 16:14). They had met there "for fear of the Jews" and had the doors bolted. When Jesus appeared in their midst, He rebuked them "because they believed not them which had seen him after he was risen." There is no implication that they counted Sunday as a holy day. Only eight texts in the New Testament mention the first day of the week; none of them imply that it is holy.According to Romans 14:5, the day we keep is a matter of personal opinion, isn't it?
Romans 14:5
Notice that the whole chapter is on judging one another (Verses 4, 10, 13). The issue here is not over the seventh-day Sabbath, which was a part of the great moral law, but over the yearly feast days of the ceremonial law. Jewish Christians were judging Gentile Christians for not observing them. Paul is simply saying, "Don't judge each other. That ceremonial law is no longer binding."

Answer 1

The "great moral law" is nowhere so called; not even the two great laws are referred to as moral.

But I am sure you are referring to the ten commandments.

So, where in Scripture does it say these are "moral" law?

And how do you define "moral" law?

How about, "a law where it is never justifiable for breaking it".

There would never be an excuse for murder.

There would never be an excuse for stealing, bearing false witness.

But there are many examples in Scripture where the sabbath command is set aside for various reasons.

The sabbath then is not a "moral" law, as though it were even relevant.

Just another example of trying to justify sabbath keeping in the absence of a command for Christians to do so.

The old covenant ended my friend, and you were never a party to it in the first place.

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Answer 2

Spamming is against community rules.

Answer 3

what's the question?

Answer 4

huh?
What is your question?