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Isn't the bible perfectly clear that it was Romans that actually beat him down, nailed him to the tree, and left him there to die? How can you blame Jews for this? Since when did conquored peoples rule the governments and judicial systems of their conquorers? Please explain this to me. I've got my popcorn ready cause I know this should be good.

2007-08-08 12:20:54 · 48 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Robin, I am so glad I didn't close this answer earlier, I would have missed your wonderful answer. Thanks, you may just have the Best Answer all locked up.

2007-08-09 03:36:14 · update #1

48 answers

Yes, the Romans did all of that, but it was Pilate who asked the mob which should he let free, Jesus or (oddly enough) another Jesus, Barabbas (Son of the Father - is what his "last" name means) who was claimed to be a murderer. The Jews yelled to let the murderer go and crucify Jesus. The Bible also says that the blood is on their heads and their descendants.... which is against the Bible, even by Jewish standards (Old Test) because the son can't carry the sins of the father (or can they? it says both in the Old Test) Everyone uses this to claim the Jews killed Jesus and blame all Jews for what is written one mob did (Can we now blame all Germans for WWII? Or the Italians for the Mafia? According to this, we can)

The problem I have with this is, crucifixion wasn't used as often as some would have us believe and it was only used for those who were traitors to Rome..... not when there was a religious dispute within, as you pointed out, their conquered peoples. Thieves (like the one crucified next to Jesus) were normally beated and hanged, not crucified. And the Bible makes it appear that they did this on a lonely hill... the Romans crucified traitors on roads leading into their cities to warn visitors not to mess with them.

Legend... they usually have some truth to them, but the truth has been embellished so much that it's hard telling exactly what part of it is truth. And considering most of this was written decades after the event, I wouldn't place too much trust on the writings to be that accurate anyway. People of that time were known for their sensationalism.

2007-08-09 01:19:27 · answer #1 · answered by River 5 · 5 1

As a Jew, I can say that many Christians tell me they dislike Jews because "Jews killed Jesus". Now, as this is Christian theology, Jesus had to die for Christians sins, shouldn't the people who actually killed him be held in high regard? That said, it was not Jews that killed Jesus it was the Romans. I once asked a Christian apologist this and he said "Well, yes Jesus had to die but we are angry at the Jews for killing him because the thought behind his being murdered was hate". I was like "What?!?!?" That didn't make sense to me at all. If they really do believe as they say they do, that we (the Jews) killed Jesus, then they should send us fruit baskets at Easter time. Their foundation is built upon the fact that Jesus had to die. Now, the problem is that even if someone accepts that the Romans did it, they don't hate the Romans with the same fervor that many hate the Jews with. Judas was considered the traitor but if it was fore ordained as Christians claim, then Judas should be the hero of the story, not the villan. If Jesus/G-d told him to go turn him in, then Judas would have gone with his blessing. So, why would he be the traitor? Anyway, I am Jewish so I don't get it. Maybe a Christian will have a better answer.

2016-05-17 09:29:49 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Jews had nothing to do with the death of Jesus- it was purely a Roman thing. The so called trial given in the NT story is the completely opposite of the Jewish law
1) It takes place at night- all trials were held during the day
2) It takes place in a private home- all trials inJjeruslaem were held in the court of the Sanhedrin in the Temple courtyard
3) There were very few people present - there have to be a minimum of 21 judges in a capital case- in Jerusalem the full Sanhedrin of 70 judges heard capital cases.
4) If a court cannot find a person guilty, they are forbidden to hand them over to secular authorities - the "court" in the NT does not find Jesus guilty and then hands him over.

So four serious violations of the halacha (Jewish law)- which since they were in a capital case means the death sentence for those committing the violations- yet the NT keeps slandering the Pharisees and their strict adherence to the law!

On top of that- you have a big problem; a Roman governor who is later removed for excessive cruelty! (You gotta wonder- and this from a people that watched people fighting to death, getting eaten alive etc for fun!) And yet a conquered, powerless group of people is somehow meant to have the ability to get him to obey them?

What does make ssense is if this whole ridiculous scenario is inserted in to remove the blame from the Romans when the early Christians were trying to convert them and needed a scapegoat! Who better than the people that had rejected their new God - ot removes the blame from the people they are trying to convert while giving an excuse why the vast majority of them have rejected him!

2007-08-09 08:13:22 · answer #3 · answered by allonyoav 7 · 1 0

The problem I have with this is, crucifixion wasn't used as often as some would have us believe and it was only used for those who were traitors to Rome..... not when there was a religious dispute within, as you pointed out, their conquered peoples. Thieves (like the one crucified next to Jesus) were normally beated and hanged, not crucified. And the Bible makes it appear that they did this on a lonely hill... the Romans crucified traitors on roads leading into their cities to warn visitors not to mess with them

2014-11-03 05:34:03 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In the Bible Jesus goes to a night trial with Jewish leaders presiding.
The Romans had a system of relative self rule over conquered areas, the leaders of the area were Jewish and reported to a higher Roman authority. In order for someone to be executed they needed a Roman ruling. Jesus was tacked with sedition.
In the area it was custom for the Roman's to free a prisoner to appease the Jews, Pontius Pilate sought to have Jesus freed, instead Barrabas was released at the bequest of the Jews. Pilate was threatened by the Jews if he were to let Jesus go free. They demanded crucifixion, and they got it. The Romans did the executing, and Jesus said to forgive them. I guess a lot of people still like to point a finger, and since the Romans are hard to track, the Jews get the blame.
No Christian I know hates Jews for "killing Christ."

2007-08-08 12:34:37 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

The Jews are the ones who turned him over to the Romans, and the Romans could find no legal reason to execute him. The Jews demanded he be executed, and the Romans asked them if they wanted them to release a murderer or Jesus (as was the custom at the time of the passover). The Jews chose the murderer, and then demanded Jesus be executed. The Romans agreed not wanting to get into another conflict with the Jewish Sanhedrin.

In my opinion both parties are guilty, both the Romans and the Jews

2007-08-08 12:32:12 · answer #6 · answered by Matthew 4 · 4 2

He was crucified under Pontius Pilate.



Most of the information about Pilate comes from the accounts of the first-century Jewish historian Josephus.
A passage known as the Testimonium Flavianum and which many scholars think was interpolated, states that, "about this time", Pilate ordered the crucifixion of someone called "Jesus", whom the author identifies as "the Christ".

According to the canonical Christian Gospels, Pilate presided at the trial of Jesus and, despite stating that he personally found him not guilty of a crime meriting death, handed him over to crucifixion.

The Synoptic Gospels and John then state that it had been a tradition of the Jews to release a prisoner at the time of the Passover. Pilate offers them the choice of an insurrectionist named Barabbas or Jesus.

In all New Testament accounts, Pilate hesitates to condemn Jesus until the crowd insists. Some have suggested that this may have been an effort by Early Christian polemicists to curry favor with Rome by placing the blame for Jesus' execution on the Jews. Yet Pilate's ability to be swayed by the crowd and his subsequent unjust decision to execute the innocent man hardly seem complimentary of Rome. So perhaps to save face, he "washed his hands", said that his death was not on his hands, and let the crowd decide.

In modern times Western traditions regard Pilate as guilty, but those of Eastern Orthodoxy argue that he was clearly exonerated, and did all that he could to release Jesus.


The fragmentary apocryphal Gospel of Peter exonerates Pilate of responsibility for the crucifixion of Jesus, placing it instead on Herod and the Jews.

2007-08-08 12:49:23 · answer #7 · answered by cashelmara 7 · 1 2

In the "New Testament", Jews are held in part responsible for Jesus' death. Some of this position comes from the fact that the disciples were Jewish, and it was a disciple, Judas, who betrayed him to the Roman authorities. Some Christian sources depict a scene in which "the Jews," given the choice of saving Barrabas or Jesus from crucifixion, chose Barrabas. However, the text doesn't tell us who :"the Jews"
were; further, assuming this took place (which is historically
unlikely given the Roman's behavior), they all couldn't have been gathered in one place. So, again, there is only indirect
responsibility. Finally, politically, we know that some Jewish leaders (who were appointed by Roman Government) may have seen Jesus as a political threat. However, the threat was more to the Romans, and the Jewish leaders may have been pressured to silence him. The final decision lay with the Romans, who alone used crucifixion as a means of killing criminals and who alone had authority to impose the death penalty.

2007-08-08 12:27:54 · answer #8 · answered by TigerLily 4 · 6 3

Yes, you could enjoy your pop corns with a soft drink. Because I am going to answer with the Bible. Please read Chapters 18 & 19 of the book of the gospel of John. Notice when you finish your redings that the mastermind of his dead was Jews (the religious empire of that era). The crowd of Jews claim to the goverment of Rome for the crucifixtion

By the way saying that the Jews killed Jesus is a kind of prejiduce. All Jesus disciple are jews and many of his follower are Jews. To be more specific the religious leadership of that time planning and execute the complot to kill Jesus using the Roman law for that. Please read carefullly to have a Biblical awswer to your question on the gospel of Mattheew, Mark, Luke and John..

2007-08-08 12:42:08 · answer #9 · answered by Jack Jack 4 · 3 2

Yes it was the Romans who killed him directly HOWEVER the Romans would ask the people to vote (cuz it was a republic based on democracy) the people were Jewish.

During the Sanhedrin Trial of Jesus ...the high priest Caiaphas accused him of blasphemy and turned him over to Pontius Pilate with charges of sedition for calling himself king of the Jews.

It's not about being racist its about historical facts.

and by the way Jews aren't a race. Israelis would be the dominate race which is predominately Jew but not every case.

2007-08-08 12:25:02 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 6 3

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