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Thanks in advance for your time.

May God bless you.

2007-08-08 00:55:37 · 24 answers · asked by Carlito 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

24 answers

I suppose he didn't really need to as it was already condemned by God

2007-08-08 01:05:53 · answer #1 · answered by Ask_Elvis 5 · 3 3

Jesus didn't come to condemn the world; He came to save it. While some of His comments are nonetheless scathing, He still taught those who had wandered from the Father's will. Such is the case within Jesus' discourse with the Pharisees regarding marriage at Matthew 19:4-12. Within this teaching, it's clear that God's plan for humanity was that one man enter into marriage with one woman. Divorce should only be considered if one spouse has committed "sexual immorality."

Reacting to this, the disciples commented, “If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.” Jesus' response was that some people aren't able to remain within a faithful marriage. But He surprised them and stated that the only other alternative was celibacy.

Therefore, while Jesus didn't EXPLICITLY state that homosexuality is forbidden, He certainly did state it IMPLICITLY.

2007-08-08 01:29:38 · answer #2 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 2 2

There is no 'sin of homosexuality'.......it is a modern day term...'homosexuality'.........it is a state of being.......the fruit of one who believes or disbelieves in a certain way.

I am not a Bible scholar but I am a woman of faith who happens to love some people dear to me and I have been on a quest to understand some things from a Biblical perspective.

Still in the process so here is what I've begun to see.

2007-08-08 03:17:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

My understanding is that sex outside of marriage is considered fornication. Fornication is a sin. Since homosexual marriage was not allowed back then, then same sex marriage would be a sin, if they had sex.

This proves again one of the many problems with so many different Christian denominations. One say OK, another says no and another says it doesn't matter. What is the truth? Who knows the truth?

2007-08-08 19:16:17 · answer #4 · answered by jack-copeland@sbcglobal.net 4 · 0 0

I think Jesus would have approved of committed gay relationships.

The Bible does not condemn consenting homosexual relationships at all but it probably does condemn same-sex paedophilia with boy slaves (Leviticus) same-sex rape (Sodom) and sacred male temple "prostitution" (Romans) none of which are features of consenting gay relationships but all were quite common for otherwise heterosexual men and were thought usual at the time the scriptures were written by most people.

Homosexual relationships are not mentioned at all in the Bible, homosexuality is not a word that occurs in the Bible except in bad translations that are commissioned by religious organizations who have an anti-gay agenda...why are they anti-gay is the question one needs to ask oneself.

If we referred to heterosexuality as being paedophilia, rape and prostitution it would be the equivalent of the way some people represent homosexuality and it is nonsense.

2007-08-08 01:20:20 · answer #5 · answered by CHEESUS GROYST 5 · 2 1

The cities of Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed for that very reason! In later accounts, the apostle Paul mentions a time where homosexuality would become rife in the latter days. He stated that the Lord would give these people over to a reprobate mind as He totally condemns the practice. Isn't it amazing how man will always try to justify his ungodly behavior?

2007-08-08 01:16:04 · answer #6 · answered by mandbturner3699 5 · 3 3

As it affects only about 2% to 8% of the population, and was already a practice forbidden by the Jews, there was no reason to spend what little time he had on that subject. Rather he when after the issues which affect the majority of mankind.

Notice that he did not mention anything about molesting children, but no one would think that meant he approves of pedophiles.

2007-08-08 01:06:58 · answer #7 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 4 2

Possibly because he knew that it wasn't a sin, and his father never condemned it either?

There is no condemnation of homosexuality in the Bible; but some passages referring to *specific* sexual acts between *specific* people in *specific* circumstances have been deliberately mistranslated to suit the sociopolitical agenda of the translators.

2007-08-08 01:46:57 · answer #8 · answered by ? 7 · 1 2

Jesus taught morality and decensy.Homosexuality is is not only immorality, indecency but also rebilion against laws of nature.Every living being has been assiugned to further offsprings.All his organs are designed to rear offsprings.Homosexuality is a temporary disease or pervertion of individuals as such human nature cannot agree to it and is destined to revolt against it.Remember what happened to a female keep of a famous tennis player?

2007-08-08 01:47:01 · answer #9 · answered by shahinsaifullah2006 4 · 0 2

Homosexuality is only condemned in ceven sections of the Bible, and never, like you said, never condemned by Jesus.

The argument against Homosexuality is mostly secular in nature.

2007-08-08 01:19:29 · answer #10 · answered by Mr. Bad Day 7 · 1 2

Maybe because he never ran into one? He had plenty to say about the sin in the people he came into contact with though. As others have already said, not talking about something doesn't mean it's ok.

2007-08-08 01:21:50 · answer #11 · answered by Machaira 5 · 0 2

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