The Bible says "A man shall not lie with another man as he lies with a woman".
Well, what if 2 women do it? Is it still a sin?
;)
2007-08-07 10:33:41 · 29 answers · asked by DEPRESSED™ 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Okay, lets say they are married...
2007-08-07 10:40:00 · update #1
Spiker: You are a party pooper! Come on... Lets pretend it "out of context", okay? ;)
2007-08-07 10:41:30 · update #2
And what's the situation when there's a guy watching?
2007-08-07 10:39:57 · answer #1 · answered by Bad Liberal 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋
That is such a funny question. I'd love to say the Bible is condoning hot lesbo action ,(no offense to any lesbians)
but I think women didn't matter for a good damn in those days
so were not mentioned. I just love that phrase, "hot lesbo action" and so very rarely get to use it. I mean no offense by it, I just love saying it.
2007-08-07 17:42:47 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it's not a stupid question at all...
1) women are not mentioned and they can do whatever they want, i suppose.
2) how does a man lie with another man as he lies with a woman? it's just technically impossible, so that whole commandment is null and void...
a man can only lie with another man as he lies with a man...
2007-08-11 05:15:41 · answer #3 · answered by joe the man 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes read Romans 1
2007-08-07 17:38:01 · answer #4 · answered by tolerance-Jn3:16,Acts2:38 2 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Yes, this is clarified by another word God gave to His people:
If people persist in doing their own thing, God "gives them up" to it for their own harm.
Rom 1:24-27
24 Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. 25 They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator-who is forever praised. Amen.
26 Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
(from New International Version)
2007-08-07 18:01:16 · answer #5 · answered by deanr610 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
An interesting, related fact for you:
When Queen Victoria (I think) was asked to outlaw homosexuality in the UK she would only agree to the male-male law being passed, as she didn't believe that the female-female side existed!!
An atheist
2007-08-07 17:40:18 · answer #6 · answered by Grotty Bodkin is not dead!!! 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Rom 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
2007-08-07 17:37:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
"Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones." Rom 1:26
2007-08-07 18:20:49 · answer #8 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not much concern is given to what horses do either. Nor sheep, nor any sort of property. Like it or not, It's a man's world.
2007-08-07 17:45:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would have to say yes. Simply because there are a lot of scriptures that point out lust's and immoral sex is wrong.
2007-08-07 17:38:41 · answer #10 · answered by frosty 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
yes it is .the bible sometimes refers to human beings as man in the general sense of the word, eg."mankind"...there are no stupid questions only stupid answers, hopefully not my answer...
2007-08-07 17:47:05 · answer #11 · answered by highrise 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋