When using a long distance call method (i dial 10 10 297 before a number to make the international call cheaper) does it make the recipient of the call pay less as well?
2007-08-06 15:42:16 · 4 answers · asked by Jujubes B 1 in Consumer Electronics ➔ Land Phones
When using a long distance call method (i dial 10 10 297 before a number to make the international call cheaper) does it make the recipient of the call pay less as well?
the person is using a cell phone
2007-08-06 15:47:43 · update #1
When using a long distance call method (i dial 10 10 297 before a number to make the international call cheaper) does it make the recipient of the call pay less as well?
the person receiving the call is using a cell phone
2007-08-06 15:51:53 · update #2
It seems that you're using a 'dial-around' phone service provider that's offering discount long-distance calling. These companies buy up long-distance time from other companies and resell them for profit but at a deep discount for you compared to standard long-distance offered by your telco.
The rates are in effect for the outgoing caller (you) but they don't apply to the receiver of the call. After all, why would they (receiver) pay for the long distance unless you had made a collect call the the receiver's #?
2007-08-07 11:20:20 · answer #1 · answered by Bruce Almighty 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, of course not. The person making the call pays.
Of course, if they're using a cell fone, they would pay standard air time, but not on a land line.
~Cindy! :)
2007-08-08 19:33:00 · answer #2 · answered by ♛ CindyBradyTooh ♛ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
From my understanding, people don't pay for incoming land line telephone calls.
2007-08-06 15:45:35 · answer #3 · answered by ~*~ strryeyedgrrl ~*~ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it does not.
And, as far as I know, you are paying connection fees and monthly fees on those calls you make using this method.
Namaste!
@}--.------
2007-08-06 15:46:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋