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1- Hardly had we returned, when he called us up.
2- Scarcely had I opened the door, when she left the room.

3- As soon as we've returned, he called us up.
4- No sooner than I've opened the door, she left the room.

What would be the better way of saying it?

thanks

2007-08-04 21:27:01 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

8 answers

3 and 4 are wrong.
No sooner had we returned that he called us up.
No sooner had I opened the door that she left the room.
For 1 and 2, I would say
We had hardly returned when he called us up.
I had scarcely opened the door when she left the room.

These sound like grammatical exercises out of a text book.
If you are looking for the most usual way of saying these sentences, it would be; " We had just returned when he called us". "She left the room as soon as we opened the door."

2007-08-04 21:33:47 · answer #1 · answered by WISE OWL 7 · 0 0

1. He called us up just as we returned.
2. She left the room as I opened the door.
3. He called, no sooner than we had returned.
4. As soon as I opened the door she left the room.

2007-08-04 22:56:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1 and 2 are correct.
3 and 4 are incorrect because you have used more than one tense in each sentence. You should be consistent with the tense. For example, number 3 should say: "As soon as we returned, he called us". (There is no need to add the word "up")
and number 4 should say: "No sooner than I opened the door, she left the room."

2007-08-08 13:22:00 · answer #3 · answered by kitty 5 · 0 0

1. He telephoned just as we arrived. or He called at the same moment we returned.

2. She left the room as I opened the door. or She left the room just after I opened the door.

3. Same as #1

4. Same as #2

2007-08-04 21:45:58 · answer #4 · answered by ZoneRider 4 · 0 0

1 and 2 are correct.

3- As soon as we returned, he called us up.

4- No sooner than I opened the door, she left the room.

Just remember, every time you use "as soon as" or "no sooner than", use the verb in the past form, as opposed to the participle have.

2007-08-05 19:22:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Just as we returned, he telephoned
I opened the door and she immediately left the room

2007-08-04 21:39:01 · answer #6 · answered by john b 3 · 0 0

No, the Watchtower is not wrong Jesus himself said there is only one true God and he excluded himself from this role. Jehovah is a Mighty God, Jesus is only called a Mighty God. In Hebrew the word God can denote God's representative. as in the case of the human judges at Ps 82. Moses is called God to Pharaoh, but Moses is not the Almighty God. Neither is Jesus the Almighty God. Rev 3:2, Jesus has a God, therefore Jesus can not be the Almighty. The basic meaning of the word 'god' is a powerful one. Thus we have two powerful ones in heaven. Jehovah who is God, and Jesus who has been given power and authority from God. Jehovah is glorfied and honored because he is God. Jesus is glorfied and honored because he came from God and died for us. .

2016-05-18 21:28:03 · answer #7 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

All 4 are not good grammar. You probably got these off a test of some sort.

2007-08-05 03:16:59 · answer #8 · answered by Fred 7 · 0 0

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