married? seems god gave him concubines and other wives..isnt that adultry?
2007-08-03 14:53:22 · 12 answers · asked by nobody a 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
God did not command it, what God did command was for him to NOT take to many
Why? Because they would lead him astray
and guess what
THEY DID
Edit:
God did not allow polygamy, Man choose to do it
2007-08-03 14:56:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, there was no limit as to how many wives or concubines a man could have. He had to be able to support them and as king, he had the income.
Most concubines could have been someones daughter, given to the king to provide her with security that her father felt she needed.
Solomon may have been the most intelligent man on earth at the time and it was these wives/concubines took him away from the true worship of his his God.
2007-08-03 22:06:27 · answer #2 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God has always allowed polygamy.
Christians are the ones who changed the laws.
Bible authors thought Jesus was to return in their lifetime so they thought there was no time to be distracted with marriage etc.
Some Christians have taken this "opinion" of a few men to promote Celibacy or promote ONLY one wife.
Both are incorrect.
Some bible scholars deny Gods laws of allowing second wives because then they would have to ADMIT that Ishmael was also given aCovenant and that would be a disaster for them.
Ishmael IS the legitimate son of Abraham and the Bible confirms but the Bible also confirms Arab history which says the son of sacrifice was Ishmael. God Told Abraham to sacrifice his Only son and the only time when someone has an only son is when there is only one. This would mean it happened before the birth of Isaac.
This goes along with history and the bible but is a total disaster for the descendants of the second son who will go the extra mile to write out the first son.
Deut. 21:15 If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have born him children, both the beloved and the hated; and if the firstborn son be hers that was hated:
Deut. 21:16 Then it shall be, when he maketh his sons to inherit that which he hath, that he may not make the son of the beloved firstborn before the son of the hated, which is indeed the firstborn:
Deut. 21:17 But he shall acknowledge the son of the hated for the firstborn, by giving him a DOUBLE portion of all that he hath: for he is the beginning of his strength; the right of the firstborn is his.
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2007-08-03 21:54:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Solomon chose to take concubines and to practice polygamy. God didn't allow him to commit adultry, he chose to do it.
2007-08-03 21:55:47 · answer #4 · answered by 29 characters to work with...... 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
LMAO, when are people going to realize the Bible is NOT the word of god. It is the word of god interpreted by man. Every time society changed the Bible is rewritten/edited to suit the changed society.
So to answer your question, the reason Solomon was allowed more than one wife, is because in his era it was socially acceptable to do that. No other reason.
2007-08-03 21:59:08 · answer #5 · answered by Amrou 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Solomon was breaking God's commands, that's why.
Deuteronomy 17:14 "When you come to the land that the LORD your God is giving you, and you possess it and dwell in it and then say, 'I will set a king over me, like all the nations that are around me,' 15 you may indeed set a king over you whom the LORD your God will choose. One from among your brothers you shall set as king over you. You may not put a foreigner over you, who is not your brother. 16 Only he must not acquire many horses for himself or cause the people to return to Egypt in order to acquire many horses, since the LORD has said to you, 'You shall never return that way again.' 17 And he shall not acquire many wives for himself, lest his heart turn away, nor shall he acquire for himself excessive silver and gold.
Don't listen to the person who said God was in favor of polygamy. God's plan has always been for one man to marry one woman for life.
Matthew 19:3 And Pharisees came up to him and tested him by asking, "Is it lawful to divorce one's wife for any cause?" 4 He answered, "Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, 5 and said, 'Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh'? 6 So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate." 7 They said to him, "Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?" 8 He said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.
2007-08-03 23:41:42 · answer #6 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why may I ask would you want to question the morality of those who lived in the dark ages? 3 to 4000 years ago?
2007-08-03 21:59:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
He was true to the Lord then, he did what was right in his eyes and at the end of all that he had and did in his own way ,he said it was all vanity . Because it wasn't for the Lord
2007-08-03 21:59:34 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible says that it was because the hardness of his heart.
2007-08-03 21:56:03 · answer #9 · answered by The Wonderer 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
he wasn't. he just did it and suffered the consequences later on.
2007-08-03 21:55:02 · answer #10 · answered by wassupmang 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋