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Why does John 1:23 quote Isaiah 40:3 and apply it to what John the Baptizer did in preparing the way for Jesus Christ, when Isaiah 40:3 is clearly discussing preparing the way before Jehovah? Because Jesus represented his Father. He came in his Father’s name and had the assurance that his Father was always with him because he did the things pleasing to his Father.—John 5:43; 8:29. Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God? Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.) It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solo

2007-08-01 23:31:34 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

The Christ serves as the primary "Seed" for the outworking of God's purposes regarding settling the issue of Universal Sovereignty (and the ransom). See Genesis 3:15.

Sadly, this "question" seems merely to quote from page 414 of the publication "Reasoning from the Scriptures", published by Jehovah's Witnesses.

When quotes are used, the references should be cited.

2007-08-02 07:33:41 · answer #1 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 0 0

John 1:23 quote Isaiah 40:3 and apply it to what John the Baptizer did in preparing the way for Jesus Christ, when Isaiah 40:3 is clearly discussing preparing the way before Jehovah? Because Jesus represented his Father. He came in his Father’s name and had the assurance that his Father was always with him because he did the things pleasing to his Father.—John 5:43; 8:29. Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God? Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.) It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solo

2007-08-02 06:35:24 · answer #2 · answered by irumporayar 3 · 0 2

If you read each individual in the Bible as a 'state of mind' or 'mentality' you will soon understand their role. You cannot hope to understand English with a Russian dictionary, or the Bible with a mortal mentality.
The human mind is not elastic enough or free enough from mere 'beliefs' to be of much help. You need to think from a more divine, less competitive, point of view. That's why human religions are mostly at each other's throats. They are a product of dualism. "Who shall be greatest?" No one!
The Christ mentality always has his/her Father - always defers to his/her Source - ie: Always is a true reflection/product/son/daughter of his/her Father/Source/Cause. This Christ mentality reveals the Oneness and harmony of reality and the Universe. Jesus was a fine example of this sonship.
A mortal mentality doesn't have any affinity with this Father and therefore has no cause.

2007-08-02 07:38:10 · answer #3 · answered by F C 1 · 0 0

The basic idea of “ransom” is a price that covers (as in payment for damages or to satisfy justice), while “redemption” emphasizes the releasing accomplished as a result of the ransom paid.

The most significant ransom price is the shed blood of Jesus Christ, which made deliverance from sin and death possible for the offspring of Adam.

2007-08-05 20:50:24 · answer #4 · answered by keiichi 6 · 0 0

Christ's purpose is clearly stated in the Bible. "To save His people from their sins.". Remember that Jehovah in the OT is Jesus in the NT.

2007-08-02 06:41:03 · answer #5 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 1 2

Know this allah needs Jesus.! EVERY knee is going to bow and every tongue confess. Whoever he is or if he ever existed, he is going to bow to the Son of God one day.

2007-08-02 07:00:11 · answer #6 · answered by shawnLacey 4 · 0 1

god wanted his blood ....wanted him sacrificed for the sins god gave us. Really God is a sick prick and just likes blood and pain....and making fools believe bible cult bs.

2007-08-02 06:44:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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