Just look up books or sites about the Council if Nicea.
In 325AD, the Roman Emperor Constantine called together several leading Christian leaders. At the time, there was a split in Christianity over the divinity of Jesus. Christianity was a cult in the Roman empire but one which had gained a very large number of followers.
Constantine recognized that the old Roman religions were falling behind Christianity. He decided he would make Christianity an official Roman religion if the two side of the Jesus debate could stop arguing and agree on a common doctrine.
They decided the best way to spread this common doctine would be to compile into a book numerous writings about the Christian religion. At the Council of Nicea, they decided what went in and what got thrown away. Exactly what was thrown away is a matter of conjecture. Some say Christianity had a tenet regarding reincarnation until the Council decided to elliminate it. Others will say there was a feminine side to Christianity (see the Da Vinci Code).
What got left out will always be a subject of contention. That a group of men sat down and decided what writings and beliefs would make it into the Bible is HISTORICAL FACT.
Just remeber that when people tell you what is written in the bible is the word of God. Actually it is what a group of old men wanted to be taken as the word of God!
As to the mistranslation issue, a good example of mistranslation of the old testament can be found in Michaelangelo's sculpture of Moses. In the original Hebrew, it said Moses's head "shone" (as in a light radiated from him") This word was close to the word for "horned" and this is how it was translated into Latin in early translations. That is why Moses statue in Rome has horns on his head!!
2007-07-31 13:36:40
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answer #1
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answered by RedsForever 3
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I don't see how it can be denied that the texts of Sacred Scripture have been tampered with or (at the very least) mistranslated over the centuries. That is why, when doing biblical study and exegesis, the reader or student is encouraged to use the oldest manuscript available. However, it is also important to note that the Church deliberately left out some parts of the canon. To have been considered part of the Sacred Scripture, a text was required to have had Apostolic authorship, have been used in the early Christian liturgy, and it must have been orthodox. So some texts were deliberately not included. It can be said, therefore, that all of these texts such as the Gospel of Thomas or the Gospel of Judas, are not news to the Church: they are old and yet fail to meet the requirements for canonicity.
2007-07-31 13:34:11
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answer #2
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answered by Stephen 2
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There is no proof. It isn't true.
The bishops who compiled the Bible were extremely lax in their selection process. They included every scrap of sacred writing that had ever been read publically in any known Church since the inception of the Christian religion. Then, for good measure, they through in several works that were universally rejected by all the Churches, some books that were rejected by Judaism, and several books that had never been read in any Church. And even then, they went ahead and added several works to the back of Constantine's Bibles that didn't make the first cut!
If you look at all the early 'canons' of Scripture that existed prior to Nicea, you will see what I mean. They included everything that had any kind of legitimacy. And then, to avoid translation issues, they adopted Origen's text of the Bible, which included all of the major revisions of the Septuagint, as well as the Hebrew (both in Hebrew and Greek transliteration).
So why do people think that parts of the Bible were left out or hidden? Simple. People are getting filthy rich by publishing half-baked theories on the origins of Christianity. And the best way to substantiate a ridiculous story is to claim that all of the evidence was conventiently removed from the Bible in the 4th century.
2007-07-31 13:27:00
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answer #3
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answered by NONAME 7
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princess: Sadly; when humans get their paws on anything to suit his or her agenda, they will even, do about anything to meet that end. Wars have been fought over the mistranslation of God's word (intentional or not) and as a consequence, this perversion of theology has led to the Inquisition of the "Dark" Ages in the history of mankind. This is why one has to do his or her OWN research and ask all the pertinent questions. Cults thrive on "those ripe for the picking" employing "Prophecy" and "Legalism" to control or manipulate people. Thankfully though, God has made available the Holy Spirit to "teach ALL things". This, combined with scholarly research will ultimately lead one into the understanding GOD is conveying to him or her. The Bible is a spiritual matter, composed by the "inspiration of the Holy Spirit" - not some guy's interpretation so, that he can control an individual. (see: Second Peter chapter 1, verses 19 -21). The Holy Spirit serves as a type of deciphering "tool", which will lead you into spiritual comprehension - not man-made "conjecture" or opinion ! This is why the "average Joe" can not understand the Bible nor the existence for God.
2007-07-31 13:38:20
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answer #4
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answered by guraqt2me 7
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I examine of an pretty conservative pastor who translated a bible passage from the unique "koine" Greek into English and then translated his English version back into "koine". He grew to become into very much shocked at how otherwise it got here out that way. The be conscious meanings and language structures between Hebrew/English and Greek/English are fairly dramatic. to no longer point out that there are verses that have been intentionally mistranslated to slot specific dogmas or to make activities in one text textile greater healthful "prophecies" in different texts. Bible translations are accomplished by using fallible adult males from documents that are already copies of in the previous source documents that now no longer exist. The question is greater wisely positioned as "how can the bible no longer be mistranslated" whilst each and every of the appropriate aspects are seen. reward on your journey!
2016-10-08 22:40:51
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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sure, of course that's the case. only an idiot would believe otherwise. there was no separation of church and state then, religion was the ruler. as for proof, well i don't know where you could find that.
but, even in this day and age with freedom of information and "enlightenment" still the public has hardly any information on the dead sea scrolls that were discovered only about 100 years ago.
http://www.handwritingfoundation.org/deadsea.htm
2007-07-31 13:27:36
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answer #6
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answered by tiggstah 3
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The Douay-Rheims bible is the most accurately translated and complete bible you can get today. It was translated directly from the Latin Vulgate. You can read it online from the web site below.
2007-07-31 13:25:39
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answer #7
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answered by dweebken 5
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Well, sweetheart you said it all, " You saw something on the
history channel", well dam that's a very reliable source. What
do they know about it. I wouldn't trust anything the history channel has. They think Jesus married Mary of Magdalene.
Get Lewis Sperry Chafer's systemic theology if you want some
good reading. Can be order from Christian Book Distributor.com.
2007-07-31 13:25:16
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answer #8
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answered by war~horse 4
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No, but in a history class I took the teacher said basically said the same thing.
2007-07-31 13:27:09
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answer #9
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answered by Joseph 6
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I have seen documentaries on the Dead Sea Scrolls and the book of Judas and so on. The bible is a book. The Words of God written through divine inspiration excepted by faith and translated by His Holy Spirit. Academia and other secular entities seek to understand without divinity so therefore create theories to express their lack of understanding.
2007-07-31 13:24:46
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answer #10
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answered by kyle g 4
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