I can almost understand all divination being condemned (according to the bible). What I don't understand is how so many people were condemned for it if they practiced oneiromancy (divination by dreams) if Joseph interpreted the pharoh's dreams the same way. Any thoughts?
2007-07-31 13:13:03 · 2 answers · asked by mist_dark 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Bible does not condemn divination.
Some scholars maintain that most (if not all) examples of God communicating to man in the Bible was through divination. Joseph himself admitted to practicing hydromancy, and there are many explicit examples of priests and prophets consulting the Urim and Thummim. Even in the early Church, divination by lots was accepted, as long as it wasn't used to determine religious doctrine.
2007-07-31 13:19:55 · answer #1 · answered by NONAME 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It was not Joseph who interpreted the dream, but God who showed Joseph the meaning behind the dream. Another example I can think of is when Daniel interpreted the king's dream. He went on his knees and prayed befoe God to reveal to him the meaning.
2007-07-31 13:17:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋