I have a question and would like a serious explanation. I was told that the Virgin Mary was married to Joseph. How could she be a virgin if she was married?
2007-07-31 09:21:48 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
she wasn't married yet. she was "engaged" or betrothed to Joseph around 14 years old and became prego at 16 prior to their wedding. the priests chastised him for "spoiling his wedding" etc...when they were not married and she was prego by God, not any man.
the Lord himself shall give you a sign, behold a virgin shall conceive and bear a son and shall call his name Immanuel/God with us. Isaiah 7:14
and for the yutzes like nik and others below "virgin" or maiden means the same thing. back then women were still virgins at 16. maiden means not married and not a slut like today's both of you and other mtv worthless sluts who have had 10 abortions by the time they're 18.
awesome, nothing but the biblical truth and i get 7 thumbs down already! keep em comin' pathetic scholars!
2007-07-31 09:23:28 · answer #1 · answered by pissdownsatansback 4 · 3⤊ 9⤋
In jewish culture, especially ancient jewish culture, the "marriage laws" were much more stringent than ours today. The man would ask the girls father for her hand in marriage, if the father approved then both families would sign a contract or make a pact that would make them "betrothed" or "engaged." Jewish engagement was basically just like being married because they were considered "husband and wife" and were not to separate or divorce. The only difference was that was no sexual activity or did not live together until the final wedding ceremony was held.
However during her "engagement" she was found to be pregnant. That was because God's Holy Spirit cause her to concieve a child. At first Joseph thought she had committed adultury which is why he wanted to divorce her. ( According to the law of moses, men were not to divorce their wives except in the case of marital unfaithfulness) However an angel reassured him that the child was not concieved as a result of sex, but as a result of God's Spirit. After Jesus was born however, she married Joseph and they had children that were a result of sex. Thus, she was a virgin when she was engaged to joseph and had jesus, but after the ceremony she had naturally born sons and daughters.
2007-07-31 16:47:06 · answer #2 · answered by Jeffrey R 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God has given you grace to seek truth through this question of yours. Brush it not aside, pray and ask the Holy Spirit to help you understand this great mystery.
Read (Exod.3,2), the bush which Moses saw burning without its being consumed by the fire. This signified that the two natures, divine and human, are to be united in such a manner, that the latter is not consumed by the divine, and that the Mother of the Messias shall conceive and give birth without violation of her virginal purity.
The Mother of God aka Blessed Mary Ever Virgin!
Her pregnancy is thru the Holy Spirit, Giver of Life. Since we cannot contain that which is infinite with our finite mind and finite understanding, we humble ourselves and accept with childlike trust and believe.
She was a Virgin, before, during and after the Word Made Flesh. She is the masterpiece of God's creation. In her, one should recognize the Divine favor of the Almighty's Right Hand rests upon her. She and Joseph were consecrated virgins their entire life. She is the chosen one from the entire human race, beginning to end and hence called "Blessed". She is the meeting point of Divinity and Humanity. Thru Her, the Second Person of the Divinity clothed Himself. She is THE channel between the Creator and His creation.
The (entire) truth of Mary is withheld for the Day of Judgment for those who reject Her here. All will be revealed and understood for on that day all will have crossed over our human limitations!
The Mystical City of God (one of Mary's titles) by Ven. Mary of Agreda. Vol 2.
2007-08-01 17:16:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was a virgin, Jesus was conceived in her womb through the Holy Spirit, not through intercourse. That's why she is referred to as Virgin Mary. Joseph decided against marrying her, till he got a message from the angel of God.
2007-07-31 16:35:00 · answer #4 · answered by ann 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
mary was pregnant while she was engaged to Joseph, in those days an engagement had to be broken like a divorce Josesph didn't believe the story till an angel told him, later after Jesus was born he had several 1/2 brothers & sisters, but these came about in the usual way.
(Matthew 1:18-23) 18Â But the birth of Jesus Christ was in this way. During the time his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, she was found to be pregnant by holy spirit before they were united. 19Â However, Joseph her husband, because he was righteous and did not want to make her a public spectacle, intended to divorce her secretly. 20Â But after he had thought these things over, look! Jehovah’s angel appeared to him in a dream, saying: “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary your wife home, for that which has been begotten in her is by holy spirit. 21Â She will give birth to a son, and you must call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” 22Â All this actually came about for that to be fulfilled which was spoken by Jehovah through his prophet, saying: 23Â “Look! The virgin will become pregnant and will give birth to a son, and they will call his name Im‧man′u‧el,” which means, when translated, “With Us Is God.”
2007-07-31 16:28:25 · answer #5 · answered by zorrro857 4 · 2⤊ 3⤋
I suppose one doesn't have to have sex to be married. But sex does have to take place to get pregnant. At least in humans two thousand years ago. So either Mary and Joseph were not being one hundred percent truthful about the virgin stuff or Mary was fooling around and Joseph bought hook, line and sinker the alibi that Mary tossed out to him when she couldn't fit into her dresses anymore.
2007-07-31 16:27:35 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 4⤋
The Bible says she had Jesus as a virgin (miracle), then married Joseph and had 5 or 6 kids with Joseph. She's not a virgin anymore.
2007-07-31 16:24:00 · answer #7 · answered by CJ 6 · 5⤊ 3⤋
Better question! How did she has a child if she was a virgin. That's because she wasn't a virgin. Doesn't that make more sense now. Why does the bible have to lie about stuff all the time?
2007-07-31 16:30:30 · answer #8 · answered by Ryan 4 · 1⤊ 3⤋
It is a cultural issue, unlike what we are accustomed to today.
She was espoused to Joseph; more than what we call being engaged, but not a marriage that has been consummated.
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2007-07-31 16:27:16 · answer #9 · answered by Hogie 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Because, unlike today, girls saved themselves for marriage back then. Also, the title refers to the fact that she was a virgin before, during, and after she conceived Christ by the power of the Holy Spirit. There are links to tracts about the Blessed Virgin at: http://www.catholic.com/library/mary_saints.asp
2007-07-31 16:24:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 3⤋
In a celibate marriage, the woman could remain a virgin.
2007-07-31 16:27:56 · answer #11 · answered by sparki777 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋