Rephrase: Why does John say that Jesus died before Passover and Mark says he was crucified after Passover?

Question

http://skepticsannotatedbible.com/contra/passover_meal.html

How can literalists explain this contradiction in a book that supposedly doesn't contradict itself?

The New KJV seems to have that contradiction.

Mark 14 & 15
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark%2014;&version=50;

John 19
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2019;&version=50;

I am not disputing the Bible as a whole, here (I'l leave that for another time). I am disputing the claims that the bible is inerrant, doesn't contradict itself, and perfect.

My statement does not undermine the Bible as a whole, but to claim it's inerrecny, appologists have some work to do.

John 19:14-15: Now it was the Preparation Day of the Passover, and about the sixth hour. And he said to the Jews, “Behold your King!”
15 But they cried out, “Away with Him, away with Him! Crucify Him!”
Pilate said to them, “Shall I crucify your King?”
The chief priests answered, “We have no king but Caesar!”

Mark 14:12: Now on the first day of Unleavened Bread, when they killed the Passover lamb, His disciples said to Him, “Where do You want us to go and prepare, that You may eat the Passover?”

Uhm...

Wann read that again, Brother Michael

Phil K: I have read the gospels in several English translations, and it all seems suspect.

Also, this question was put forth by a guy who is a Ph.D, a professor in Religious Studies @ UNC, and a graduate of Moody Bible College.

delsydebothom: where in the Gospels or anywhere else is there evidence that Mark and John were using different time schedules instead of one guy making a mistake?

It seems like you're just making stuff up to rationalize the contradiction.

Answer 1

Because it is man made! Contradictons everywhere!

Answer 2

The differentiation in the "hour" has to do with the discrepancies between the Palestinian and the Roman methods of keeping time. St. Mark uses the Jewish method, St. John the Roman.

Here is an overview of the Roman Hours during Summer-Solstice

Roman Modern

1st hour 4 o'clock, 27 minutes 0 seconds

2d hour 5 o'clock, 42 minutes 30 seconds

3rd hour 6 o'clock, 58 minutes 0 seconds

4th hour 8 o'clock, 13 minutes 30 seconds

5th hour 9 o'clock, 29 minutes 0 seconds

6th hour 10 o'clock, 44 minutes 30 seconds

7th hour 12 o'clock, 0 minutes 0 seconds

8th hour 1 o'clock, 15 minutes 30 seconds

9th hour 2 o'clock, 31 minutes 0 seconds

10th hour 3 o'clock, 46 minutes 30 seconds

11th hour 5 o'clock, 2 minutes 0 seconds

12th hour 6 o'clock, 17 minutes 30 seconds

End of the day 7 o'clock, 33 minutes 0 seconds

And for Winter-Solstice

1st hour 7 o'clock, 33 minutes 0 seconds

2d hour 8 o'clock, 17 minutes 30 seconds

3rd hour 9 o'clock, 2 minutes 0 seconds

4th hour 9 o'clock, 46 minutes 30 seconds

5th hour 10 o'clock, 31 minutes 0 seconds

6th hour 11 o'clock, 15 minutes 30 seconds

7th hour 12 o'clock, 0 minutes 0 seconds

8th hour 12 o'clock, 44 minutes 30 seconds

9th hour 1 o'clock, 29 minutes 0 seconds

10th hour 2 o'clock, 13 minutes 30 seconds

11th hour 2 o'clock, 58 minutes 0 seconds

12th hour 3 o'clock, 42 minutes 30 seconds

End of the day 4 o'clock, 27 minutes 0 seconds

Here are the Jewish Hours

6 to 9 A.M. (early morning), 9 to 12 P.M. (the third hour), 12 to 3 P.M. (the sixth hour), and 3 to 6 P.M (the ninth hour).

Thus, Jesus was probably crucified around noon.

The "Preparation of the Passover" lasted several days. For an overview of the ancient feast, read this article. http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/11512b.htm

*edit

Because John was Bishop over the Ephesian Churches, and was writing the Gospel for them; and Mark, though a Gentile, had his gospel dictated to him by St. Peter, who's Jewishness was always more pronounced than even St. Matthew. It isn't even clear that St. Peter was yet in Rome at the time of the writing of the gospel of St. Mark, which would have made the place of origin for this Gospel Antioch.

Answer 3

Jesus did not devour passover, Jesus ate the banquet of unleavened bread with the 12 which became a 2 day experience beginning the Wednesday before passover which became a 7 day experience. Jesus died the day of training that Thursday, not on Friday because of the fact the church homes have informed you. Mark became a disciple of Peter and Paul, not Jesus. Mark does not even point out the regulations given via Jesus in the Sermon on the Mount, and Mark is the only author that asserts the Apostle might talk in tongues. The day that Jesus gave the Holy Ghost as written in Acts (Acts of the Apostle, attempting to be large) is a lie, John 20:a million-19 provides the genuine day that Jesus gave the Holy Ghost to the international and it became a similar Sunday Jesus rose from the ineffective. (John 20:17-23). .

Answer 4

The actual day of Passover always preceded the first day of the week-long feast of Unleavened Bread. That first day was a high sabbath, so the day before it (regardless of also being Passover) was a day of preparation when the residents of Israel removed all the leaven from their homes. And often the entire Spring feast (including Passover, Unleavened Bread, and Firstfruits) all fell under the rubric "Passover."

So, Jesus could indeed eat the Passover meal on the evening when it started (the Jewish lunar calendar days start at sunset). Then he could be arrested and judged throughout the night and appear before the crowd in the morning. That would place Him on the cross during the afternoon, as the day of Passover was ending and the first day (the high day) was approaching.

There is absolutely no contradiction in the text. It is simply stating what every practicing Jew knew -- you removed the leaven from your home on the day prior to the high day. That day of preparation was also the day of Passover when the sacrificial lamb was slain. John's point in driving home the fact that Jesus was dying on the day of preparation was to emphasize the hurry to get His body off the cross since the high day was approaching (John 19:31).

Another supposed "contradiction" done away with.

Answer 5

I think u have a misunderstanding or misinterpretation bcos it clearly states in John that Jesus had the passover feast where he talked about the person who dips his hand into the bowl with Jesus would crucify him. That was the passover feast and it is in John. U stated a website to prove ur point but i wonder if u have checked the bible to confirm ur point. Even John is more detailed on wat happened on the day of Passover. So this most be a big misinterpretation. Just read the bible. It is the true evidence

Answer 6

The verse in question is:

John 13:1 Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end.
John 13:2 And supper being ended, the devil having now put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, Simon's son, to betray him;

John 13:1 states that the event listed happened before the Passover feast. Skeptics then point out that the Crucifixion follow this verse, therefore they are the events that happened before the Passover.

If you actually read verse 1, it says that what happened "before the Passover", was that Jesus knew that time of his death was close, and that he loved his disciples.

Verse 2 that states "And supper being ended...." and then goes on to give the events of the crucifixion. So verse 2 specifically states that the Crucifixion of Jesus happened after the Passover supper (which is the Last Supper that Jesus ate with his disciples).

So there is no contradiction between John and the other gospels. They all state the crucifixion was after the Passover. To somehow get the crucifixion before the Passover meal, you have to drop half of verse 2 out of the Bible.

No contradiction.....

Answer 7

Did you notice the website you cited leaves out over eighty verses in between its Mark references? That's worth thinking about.
I agree that people(especially ultra conservative Christians) need to examine Biblical texts more objectively but this is not an example of a contradiction. This website has taken advantage of the different phrasing used by two different authors writing to two different audiences. Scholars who study the Hebrew culture and customs of the time will find no contradictions here.
It's a good thing to challenge people's beliefs and make them think, but do it intelligently and logically. Don't copy arguments from a website with an obvious agenda that anyone who's actually read the Bible can easily refute.

Answer 8

Okay, heres the deal with the "controversial" accounts...if you and a friend went out one night and later the next day you were telling someone about what all you two did together, would your story be exactly like your friends? No. You would add certain details, that your friend may leave out completely, because the story is being told from two different perspectives.
The Gospels are like that because they are told by different people with different perspectives. It doesn't mean that they're not true..just as the story you and your friend would tell wouldn't be a lie. Hope that helps!

Answer 9

It's a fascinating question! Thanks for asking!

Actually, you're quoting a misinterpretation the John passage. It wasn't "Passover" that was being prepared for, but rather it was the "Day of Preparation", which was one day of the Passover feast. I'm not sure which version of the Bible you're looking at, but the original Greek states that it was "the Day of Preparation" of "Passover." Passover was a weeklong celebration. One of the days was called "Lamb Selection Day" (which Christians may find it interesting that Palm Sunday was "Lamb Selection Day") and another day was called "Preparation Day".

The two passages don't contradict each other at all. I would be interested in knowing (if you can add it to your additional info for the question) WHICH version of the Bible your "Skeptics Annotated Bible" is quoting.

Answer 10

The only people who say that the bible never contradicts itself are either mentally challenged people or people who have never read the bible for themselves.

Having said that, though:

Both the gospels of Mark and John were written in retrospect; these two men were trying to remember events as they happened, but the time sequence wasn't as important as the facts: Jesus came, lived, died for us, and was ressurected.

Minutae conflicts don't mean that there isn't truth in the bible.

Answer 11

Nice try Scotty but the Skeptics Bible is correct. In fact there are several differing accounts of when, how, and for how long Jesus was crucified, and all of them supposedly from people who were there at the scene - it was featured in a BBC historical documentary last year.