2007-07-30 23:49:48 · 4 answers · asked by Calchas 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The answer to that should depend on one's persepective, and it'll be interesting to see how many you get that are reasonable within their own context.
In my opinion - irrespective of which god(s) one assumes - if free will is also assumed to exist, things/acts must posses innate goodness if man is supposed to be able to make a choice for good of his own free will.
However, I can think of one perspective that would claim the opposite and be perfectly logically self-consistant in it's reasoning.
2007-07-31 00:09:26 · answer #1 · answered by The Arkady 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Boy we are really seeing a lot of thoughtful questions today. I think that goodness is both a function of God's will and also a function of innate goodness.
But your notion is quite thought provoking to say the very least.
2007-07-31 07:01:43 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Neither.
Each person judges for themselves whether an act is "good" or not.... and there is no declaration that they need agree with the next person.
As such, the judgement is arbitrary at best.
2007-07-31 07:05:10 · answer #3 · answered by Lucid Interloper 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not God deciding what is good and what isn't. The character of God is love. Love is therefore a supernatural concept.
2007-07-31 06:55:57 · answer #4 · answered by Matthew T 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋