2007-07-30 15:43:18 · 7 answers · asked by chavvyguy 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
It depends on what type of a fine or summons you are paying and where you live. Different types of fines go into different funds. When a statute is created that creates penalties such as fines, the local government usually designates where the collected fines will go at that time. The fines go back into the government, but the actually account or purpose for the fines varies from place to place.
2007-07-30 15:53:40 · answer #1 · answered by muriel12 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
If you pay it with the issuance of a a receipt, it will go to the government and will be use for the good of the whole community but if without official receipt, it will go to the pocket of the receiving officer..
so, when you pay always asked the necessary receipt
jtm
2007-07-30 15:53:54 · answer #2 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
county courts, state courts, issuing police department, city funds. each forfeiture is divided up monetarily into segments which are then dispersed to different government agencies. Ask and cop to pull out their bond book and that book could tell you how the forfeiture is divied up.
2007-07-30 15:47:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
that would depend on the violation and who issued it. If its a "moving" violation its split between state and city/county that issued it. Non moving is usually kept 100% by the issueing agency.....George
2007-07-30 15:48:44 · answer #4 · answered by tgeorge12000 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It goes to the coffers of the city or county...not to the police or sheriff's departments themselves.
2007-07-30 19:06:59 · answer #5 · answered by Vindicaire 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Ultimately in some politician's pocket....
2007-07-30 17:13:02 · answer #6 · answered by class act 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
government
2007-07-30 15:45:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋