cause some docs prescribe some drugs only in there name brand form
2007-07-29 13:58:57 · 11 answers · asked by Robert P 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Medicine
They are the same, any difference is only due to perception. Even in non-prescription you are wasting your money on Tylenol and Advil when generic acetominophen and ibuprophen are the exact same thing. Furthermore, a prescription for the brand name can be filled by the pharmacist with a generic equivalent if the patient consents. The brand name has greater recognition by patients, so it is often easier that way.
2007-07-29 15:16:18 · answer #1 · answered by Troy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is no difference in potency or in quality. Some may be licensed from the original maker and be made by an identical process.
Some prescriptions are written non-generic because doctors don't care how much their patients pay. Other are written non-generic because doctors have seen some differences in an individual patent's response to different brands of same medicine.
2007-07-29 22:01:17 · answer #2 · answered by Rich Z 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not true!
a generic drug has the potency as a brand drug. why is brand more expensive? because the pharmaceutical company that invented the drug filed for a patient--this gives that company exclusive rights to market and sell that "brand" drug for a term--5, 10, or 15 years. AFTER the expiration of the patent, other companies can literally copy the drug formula--basically everything is the same except for the "generic" name. It's also cheaper too.
2007-07-29 21:06:29 · answer #3 · answered by Alpha M 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The standard for potency of a generic dose is -25 to +20 percent of the labeled dose. That means to be called the same dose a 100 mg tablet may have as little as 75 mg or as much as 120 mg.
Old Doc
2007-07-29 21:43:47 · answer #4 · answered by a simple man 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I was told the same thing not by a dr but someone who used a certain generic medication instead of the name brand and found them to have a different potency.
2007-07-29 22:02:24 · answer #5 · answered by jannsody 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Generic and brand have the same potency.
2007-07-30 09:50:07 · answer #6 · answered by Donnie B 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, that isn't true, especially in the good ol' US of A. All drugs are federally regulated here so even a generic has to has the same ingredients as it says it does.
2007-07-29 21:02:30 · answer #7 · answered by kattsmeow 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In most cases, there is no functional difference between generic and brand-name over-the-counter drugs.
2007-07-29 21:00:40 · answer #8 · answered by lithiumdeuteride 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, generic drugs simply become available after the patent has run out on the name brand drug.
2007-07-29 21:04:23 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
federal law requires they be identical. if you can believe the government.
2007-07-29 21:10:36 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋