i dont think u can go wrong ... pick one and u automatically pick the other coz theyre all the same God ..
2007-07-28 04:53:02
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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"In the name of" means according to the authority of, or according to the instructions. Since Jesus, the Father, and the Holy Spirit are unified, to be baptized according to the instructions of one, is the same as following the instructions (authority) of all three. They did not authorize different baptisms. "There is one baptism"! (Ephesians 4:4-5)
By the way, the phrase "baptizing in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit" comes from Matthew 28:18-20. These verses also express the authority of Jesus, and He told the apostles to teach the world to observe the things He had commanded.
Since Jesus commanded baptism in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, then to be baptized according to Christ's instructions, you would also be following the authority of the other members of the Godhead. To be baptized in the name of one is to follow the authority of all three.
As for the questions about Mark 16, verses 9-20 are missing from TWO of the main manuscripts. These two are from the 4th century. They are given more attention by some because they are the oldest.
The Alexandrian manuscript, however, is less than 100 years older than the other two, and it does contain the verses, as do the vast majority of the rest of the manuscripts (thousands).
Secondly, while the two that do not contain these verses are older, there are indications that they are not as good of quality as many that came later. There are signs that they have been altered and they do not agree with each other in some places.
Those two manuscripts are from about the same time and area. Some think that the verses were not in those manuscripts because the manuscript they were copied from may have been damaged and unreadable. Others suggest that the scribes were told to leave off these verses.
Third, the two manuscripts do not have the verses, but there is a large empty space left where those verses should be. This is odd since writing material was valued and not as easy to obtain during time period.
In one of the manuscripts, there is a whole column, and part of another left blank. It is the only blank column in the entire manuscript.
This empty space seems to indicate that the scribes knew that more verses existed.
Forth, there are early translations of the Bible that are primarily translated into Latin. These are not "manuscripts" since they are not in the original Greek. Many of these ancient translations date back to the second century, 200 years before the manuscripts in question.
Again, the overwhelming majority of these translations contain verses 9 - 20. (Some say they all do.) Since these ancient translations include the end of Mark, then the manuscripts they were translated from must have contained them also.
Forth, If Mark ended with verse 8, the ending would have been "and they were afraid". The word "gospel" means "good news". It would have been very odd for the Good News of Mark to end with "and they were afraid" in this, the greatest time of hope for the children of God!
If verse 8 was the end, Mark would be the only Gospel that did not have the Great Commission. See Matthew 28:18-20, Luke 24:47, and John: 21:17 where Jesus simply says "feed my sheep".)
Fifth, many of the early "Church Fathers" and historians reference these verses, quote from them, and/or reference them as being written by Mark or the words of the Lord!
There is abundant evidence that Mark 16:9-20 is authentic! You can trust that those verses belong in your Bible!
Thank you for your good question and considering the things I have answered!
2007-07-28 06:18:14
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answer #2
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answered by JoeBama 7
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No place in the Scripture does it say anyone was baptized in the Titles Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. Every time it mentions anyone being baptized it is in the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ. Why is that because the Name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost (all these are titles) is Jesus Christ for there is NO OTHER NAME given among men whereby ye must be saved. The trinity formula was not used until the time of Constantine before that the only form was in the Name of Jesus Christ, we are Baptized into Christ but the Catholic Church institute that about the same time they reinstated the Babylonian Heresy (Trinitarinaism) prior to that Christians believed in One God, He has many offices but one God, Arius changed this at the Council of Nicea.
2007-08-03 18:32:44
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answer #3
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answered by cowboy_christian_fellowship 4
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I am a christian and when I was baptized I was baptized in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost. I see where you are coming from, I have asked that same question for a long time. I always thought that after Jesus rose that we were to be baptized in the name of Jesus. I also would like to know the answer to this question.
2007-08-04 17:00:56
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answer #4
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answered by Francine M 4
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3 persons in one God, the blessed Trinity. God the Father who loves us, God the Son (Jesus) who was sent to redeem us and the Holy Spirit who is all around us, in our hearts, in our minds. He was sent to guide us. None are judgemental, remember the story of the Prodigal Son? how his father saw his younger son and ran out to greet him while he was a long way off. Threw his arms around him and his father forgave him, in the same way that all these 3 things do. Because Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three person's in One God. It is the greatest problem Christians have had to grapple with for centuries. Not even the theologians can fully understand it, it's that complex. So in answer to your question Stanley, no it does not matter one jot who you are baptised under, because Father, Son and Holy Spirit/Ghost are all the same.
2007-07-28 05:19:25
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answer #5
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answered by SOAP WATCHER 2
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Yes it does we should be baptised in the name of the Father the Son and the Holy Spirit. Using God as the Father Jesus the son of David and the holy spirit as the Spirit that will dwell in us.
2007-08-04 10:09:32
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answer #6
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answered by Carol F 2
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The words of Christ in Matt. 28:19-20. Baptism is not necessary for salvation. Are you really a scribe?
2007-07-28 05:40:40
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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We are baptised because of salvation,not for salvation.This is not my opinion,this is what
Jesus teaches in the new testament.Baptism
by submersion is scripitural and for believers
only.All others are false teachings.I am Baptist,So the king James bible is the only inerrant word of God.2nd Timothy 3:16.
2007-07-28 05:26:33
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Baptism is not was saves you. It is an outward act of obedience that shows the inward commitment.
Acts 2:38-39 NKJV
Then Peter said to them,"Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
2007-07-28 05:01:49
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answer #9
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answered by mysongsrhis 3
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Baptism is an outward sign of an inward commitment.
Baptism isn't for Salvation and will not save anyone. Remember the thief on the cross next to Christ? He wasn't baptized, yet Christ told him, "today, you will be with me in Paradise." Why? Because the thief recognized that Christ was God incarnate. (God in the flesh)
2007-07-28 04:56:44
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answer #10
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answered by Devoted1 7
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Check out John the Baptist Friend. Baptism is not a way to salvation. It is an outward sign of forgiveness and repentance by allowing yourself to be immersed in the blood.
The Bible is an excellent source to learn about things like this.
God Bless!
2007-08-05 03:47:32
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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