Virgo – Origination of "Virgin"
"Virgin" originated from the Greek and Latin word "Virgo," or maiden. It was used often in Greek mythology to classify several goddesses such as Artemis (also known as Diana) and Hestia. Virgin was a label of strength and independence -- it described the goddesses who were immune to the temptations of Dionysus, Greek god of seduction and wine. Artemis is the Greek virgin goddess of the moon and the hunt; she protects women in labor, small children and wild animals. Hestia is the Greek virgin goddess of the hearth. She never takes part in the struggle of men and gods. Virginity was once a term of power.
2007-07-27 11:09:26
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The word you referred to is a Greek translation of the prophecy of Isaiah for a young woman not a virgin as we know the definition today.
So no the bible speaks of a young woman not a virgin, the MEN who translated the OT misinterpreted the word and the writers of the NT used it to show Jesus as a Devine being.
2007-07-27 18:21:07
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answer #2
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answered by honshu01 3
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Yes, the word for virgin in Isaiah could be translated young woman or maiden, but a young woman or a maiden giving birth would be nothing out of the ordinary.
"Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign..." testifies to the meaning that it is a supernatural sign - a virgin giving birth.
Mary herself testified to being a virgin when she said,
"...How can this be, since I do not know a man?" to the angel.
2007-07-27 20:10:15
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answer #3
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answered by Renata 6
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If you are speaking of the "virgin" Mary of the Christian Myth then it meant "Not Married" or "answers to no man" Basically she wasn't attached to anyone when she conceived the Rabbi Yeshua, by a young Roman soldier named Tiberius who went on to become the Emperor.
The story of continuing to be a Virgin (as in not having sex) is false. Mathew 1:18 ".....Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together, she was with child....." Matt 1:25 says that Joseph "and did not know her till she had bought forth her FIRST born son."
Mary (Miriam Herod) had children after that and they are named in Matt 4:18-22 and of different fathers.
Also brothers and sisters of Yeshua are mentioned in Mark3:31-32 and Mark 6:3.
So I guess she remained a Virgin as she had alot of children to different fathers (Including one to her Uncle King Herod whose name was Mary of Magdalene, this is why the church calls her a prostitute. They would rather call her that than to admit Yeshua was Married to his half sister..) without actually being faithful to any of them.
2007-07-28 00:34:40
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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A woman was considered a virgin until she had her first child.
2007-07-27 18:22:12
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answer #5
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answered by moondriven 3
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What other meaning can there be?
It means one who has never had sexual intercourse.
I know that many feminists give it a completely different meaning in that it is considered a woman who can choose her sexual partners, but I think that that is distorting the definition of the word beyond recognition - if there are no stable meanings to words (and to that extent), then language is meaningless, for then anything can mean anything.
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2007-07-27 18:12:32
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answer #6
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answered by canx_mp058 4
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never had sex.
i think the debate is whether oral sex is considered sex. Also, people debate that if your 'no-no' has ever been PENETRATED, even if you did it yourself, youre no longer a virgin. so that means if youve ever masturbated, youre not a virgin. which is complete $hit. Cause there would be no virgins left in the world if that was true :P
2007-07-27 18:10:40
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Olive oil
2007-07-27 18:09:36
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answer #8
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answered by ? 4
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A woman who had not been betrothed is my understanding, so whether having intercourse or not if she was not betrothed she was considered a virgin.
2007-07-27 23:19:51
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answer #9
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answered by Part-time Antagonist 3
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No one can ever really know, because we weren't there.
Math and Mother are supposedly from the same word.
Makes sense, if you realize that women were the great harvesters, by season, by astronomy.
But, can you PROVE that?
2007-07-27 18:08:59
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answer #10
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answered by starryeyed 6
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