I've been reading the Bible.
From what I know, Christians believe in a state called “hypostatic union”, where Man and God exist together- completely separate from each other.
The teaching is that Jesus who is God, became Man and lived amongst us, whilst never ceasing to be God. Verses such as John 1 and Phillipians 2 are believed to show this.
So when Jesus died, God did not die, but the "man" part died; and when Jesus rose again He went to be with the Father.
According to Christians on His return, Jesus will be worshipped as God... because all will see Him as He really is.
But did Jesus Himself actually teach this?
Most Christian Theology states that Jesus was resurrected on the third day, and was then 'caught up' and ascended to Heaven where he joined 'The Father'- as in 'joined up with', But from what I have read, there is no use of the phrase "joined the Father'' in the Bible.
What it says is that Jesus is now "seated at the right hand of the Father."
2007-07-27
11:02:09
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6 answers
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asked by
(notso)Gloriouspipecleaner
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
When Jesus spoke of Himself and the Father, He always talked of them as being two… I am going to my Father and your Father, to my God and to your God.
Thus did Jesus "join" the Father in the same sense that I could go up the street to join my friends for a coffee- But not in the sense of 'joining' the Father to become One again?
Jesus did say "I and the Father are One." BUT if you look at the context in John 5, John 10 and John 17 (which I believe are the only places where He speaks of Oneness), Jesus seems to be discussing ONENESS in purpose, in Words and in Works.
This seems clearest in John 17 when Jesus prays asking that the Disciples be ONE in the same way "we" are ONE.
Compare that to John 10 where He says "the Father is greater than all"… The Father has given them to me... I and the Father are One”
2007-07-27
11:03:22 ·
update #1
John:
My prayer is not for them alone. I pray also for those who will believe in me through their message, 21 that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me. 22 I have given them the glory that you gave me, that they may be one as we are one: 23 I in them and you in me. May they be brought to complete unity to let the world know that you sent me and have loved them even as you have loved me.
It sounds like Jesus is a much honoured servant of God, doing the will of His Father, and asking that those who follow Him become one in unity and in purpose so that the world might know that God sent Jesus for a purpose... but always to the glory of God the Father.
Yay or Nay?
(Disclaimer : I'm not even a Christian- just a bit of a reader trying to figure out what different people interpret from this text called the Bible)
2007-07-27
11:06:05 ·
update #2
Hypostatic Union (from the Greek: ὑπόστασις, "hypostasis," meaning essence)[1] is a technical term in Christian theology, used in reference to Christology; that is, understanding how the human and divine are united in the person of Christ. The term "hypostatic union" became official at the Council of Chalcedon, which stated that the two natures (divine and human) are united in the one person (existence or reality, "hypostasis") of Christ---
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypostatic_union
2007-07-27 11:06:20
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answer #1
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answered by lady_phoenix39 6
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As you probably guessed, the term "hypostatic union” was a term coined by later Christian theologians to explain what they thought that the New Testament (especially the Apostle Paul) was trying to say about who and what Jesus was. The real question that you are asking, I think, is did Jesus ever claim to be the essence of god in human form?
In John chapter 5, verse 18, it states that some of the Jewish leaders were trying to kill Jesus because he claimed to be "equal with God" (NIV). Obviously the contemporaries of Jesus understood him to mean that he actually WAS God (or a part of God) not just a "friend" of God, as Abraham was. See John 5:16-47 and John 8:12-59 for examples. If they were wrong in their understanding of his teaching, then why didn't Jesus try to correct them?
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Matthew 26:62-68
Then the high priest stood up and said to Jesus, "Are you not going to answer? What is this testimony that these men are bringing against you?" But Jesus remained silent.
The high priest said to him, "I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God."
"Yes, it is as you say," Jesus replied. "But I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven."
Then the high priest tore his clothes and said, "He has spoken blasphemy! Why do we need any more witnesses? Look, now you have heard the blasphemy. What do you think?"
"He is worthy of death," they answered.
Then they spit in his face and struck him with their fists. Others slapped him and said, "Prophesy to us, Christ. Who hit you?"
New International Version (NIV)
Copyright © 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society
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Here Jesus seem to be making a reference to a prophecy in the Book of Daniel that many of his contemporaries seemed to think was talking about God (Daniel 7:13,14). The Chief Priest obviously believed that Jesus was implying that Jesus himself was the fulfillment of Daniel's prophecy, and Jesus never corrected him. Since Jesus was on trial for his life here, you would think that Jesus would not have been playing games with his listeners, but was trying his best to be as clear as he could be.
The following articles have an interesting discussion on the topic. They are a short read:
2007-07-30 15:33:03
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answer #2
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answered by Randy G 7
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I like your interpretation. But going further, Jesus had to be more than mere human because He was sinless like God created Adam. Jesus was (is) the 2nd Adam.
2007-07-27 18:13:24
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answer #3
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answered by Prof Fruitcake 6
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i think you are thinking of the trinity...it has three persons, God the Father, God the son and God the holy spirit...i think there is one God endwelling 3 parts. it's hard to explain. i think God and Jesus are in heaven now and the holy spirit is living inside me and all christians...
mark 16:19 After the Lord Jesus had spoken to them, he was taken up into heaven and he sat at the right hand of God.
luke 24:51 While he was blessing them, he left them and was taken up into heaven.
Acts 1
Jesus Taken Up Into Heaven
1In my former book, Theophilus, I wrote about all that Jesus began to do and to teach 2until the day he was taken up to heaven, after giving instructions through the Holy Spirit to the apostles he had chosen. 3After his suffering, he showed himself to these men and gave many convincing proofs that he was alive. He appeared to them over a period of forty days and spoke about the kingdom of God. 4On one occasion, while he was eating with them, he gave them this command: "Do not leave Jerusalem, but wait for the gift my Father promised, which you have heard me speak about. 5For John baptized with[a] water, but in a few days you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit."
6So when they met together, they asked him, "Lord, are you at this time going to restore the kingdom to Israel?"
7He said to them: "It is not for you to know the times or dates the Father has set by his own authority. 8But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth."
9After he said this, he was taken up before their very eyes, and a cloud hid him from their sight.
10They were looking intently up into the sky as he was going, when suddenly two men dressed in white stood beside them. 11"Men of Galilee," they said, "why do you stand here looking into the sky? This same Jesus, who has been taken from you into heaven, will come back in the same way you have seen him go into heaven."
hope this helps...P.S. my references are NIV
2007-07-27 18:24:42
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answer #4
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answered by Chriss 2
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I've never heard of your little “hypostatic union”.
The word “hypostatic" never appears in the Bible.
Pastor Art
2007-07-27 18:10:19
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Sister, please - the Holy Trinity does not have to conform in any way or form to the terrestrial laws of physics! Apparently, the Beyond is set up in a way that moves beyond human shape and form to allow multiplicity in unity - it's not physics! Please don't bring the Lord down!..
Of course, that would bring the entire reliability of the scripture down.. but - PRAISE BE HIM WHO FORGIVES REGARDLESS OF RACE, SEX, RELIGION - o wait. ><
2007-07-27 18:56:19
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answer #6
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answered by krneel128 3
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