Only 50% of the time.
2007-07-26 08:49:15
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answer #1
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answered by S K 7
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There were never two Popes. Right before the schism in 1378, Pope Urban VI was elected. Because of some French cardinals questioning the validity of the pope and Pope Urban VI not being very well liked, many cardinals elected a "new"pope. Robert of Gevena, or Pope Clement VII, became the newly elected pope. In actuality, anti-pope. As you may know, there is only one pope, whether the cardinals like him or not, until his death. Hope this helps you out!
2007-07-26 09:08:09
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answer #2
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answered by M&M 2
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In the year 1378, the Roman Catholic Church split when the King of France decided that he did not like the Italian Pope and elected one of his own. The Great Schism, as it has been called, lasted for about 68 years, during which time there were two popes claiming authority over the Catholic Church.
The so-called "Babylonian Captivity" was one of the main factors Which caused the Great Schism. In 1309, Pope Clement V moved the papacy and his residence to Avignon, a city just outside French territory on the Rhone River. This allowed Phillip the Fair, King of France, to exert a great deal of influence over the pope. In 1377, Pope Gregory XI made a significant move and returned the papacy to Rome.
After Pope Gregory XI died, an Italian Pope was elected. However, the French did not like him. Therefore, they elected their own pope who ruled from Avignon where the pope had been during the Avignese Papacy. This was also regarded by many as a location that worked well in centralizing leadership. As a result of this, Western Christendom split, with two popes and two accompanying papal structures.
Now Western Europe was politically divided over which pope to support. Of course France supported the Avignon pope. Along with France were Sicily, Scotland, Castile, Aragon, and Portugal. On the other side, Rome supported the Roman pope, as did Flanders, Poland, Hungary and Germany. Many citizens were confused over this split, but those who were not decided to take advantage of it. The two popes were constant rivals. It was common to hear each calling the other the anti-pope and also trying to get him out of a position of leadership. Their main motive for these actions was to gain allies for themselves. There were very few people who actually took the claims of these so-called spiritual leaders seriously because of the fact that they were competing constantly with one another just like anyone dealing with worldly politics. The effects of this split on the general population can be summarized as follows, "The papal office suffered the most; the pope's authority diminished as pious Christians became bewildered and disgusted."
Following the split, the papal offices began to lose authority. For a time conditions improved, but they did not stay favorable. Finally, the cardinals of both popes decided that an ecumenical council of godly men could collectively possess more divine authority that just one pope. So, in 1409 they asked the church council in Pisa to elect a new pope that could unite the sides. The Pisian council did, but neither pope was willing to give up his power. Thus, three popes were vying for authority over the church.
Finally between 1414 and 1418, the Council of Constance was successful in healing the Schism. The deposition of the Avignon Pope induced the resignation of the Roman Pope. Therefore, the schism was healed and there was room for the election of a single pope, Pope Martin V, who reigned from 1417-1431.
2007-07-26 08:50:35
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answer #3
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answered by Maya_Phelina 3
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There weren't both legitimate Popes. One was, one was not. It really isn't a take your pick sort of thing. Some had taken it into their hands to move the vatican, but the Vatican is still in rome.
LOVE your neighbor as yourself.
Amen.
:Responsorial Edit: Revisionist history to prove a point is something the muslims are doing in denying the holocaust. Saint Peter was teh first pope who was given the keys to the KINGDOM . .. the papacy remains in succession to Saint Peter. That means infalliblity began with CHRIST, ends with CHRIST, and is the doctrine from Saint Peter through the Early Church Fathers to the Present day Pope.
LOVE your neighbor as yourself.
Amen.
2007-07-26 09:21:13
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answer #4
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answered by jesusfreakstreet 4
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WOW,
Good explanation, vintage, give her the 10 pts.
One point, Papal infallibility does NOT mean that we Catholics believe that the Pope is perfect, and infallibility ONLY applies to his teachings on faith and Morals.
Peace be with you.
2007-07-26 08:56:52
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answer #5
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answered by C 7
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The only infallible man was Jesus. Popes screw up just like the rest of us.
2007-07-26 08:54:56
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answer #6
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answered by Machaira 5
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The doctrine of infallibility was created in the 1800s.
2007-07-26 08:49:28
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answer #7
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answered by Nightwind 7
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Only in the Catholic church would any human be labeled as "infallible". Sorry, all the popes, from Peter to the current Benedict, have been fallible.
2007-07-26 08:51:11
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answer #8
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answered by rockjock_2000 5
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Two Popes Schism
2017-02-27 09:19:00
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Sweetie, you don't understand what infallibility is. It doesn't mean the individual never does wrong. If that were true, then popes would never have to go to confession. JPII went every day. It means in matters of dogma alone. It's biblical. Jesus told Peter - 'what you bind on earth is bound in heaven what you loose on earth is loosed in heaven.'
2007-07-26 08:53:10
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answer #10
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answered by Max Marie, OFS 7
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No, neither one of them was. The spiritual infallibility didn't come about until 1870.
2007-07-26 08:50:55
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answer #11
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answered by Purdey EP 7
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