2007-07-26 08:36:58 · 23 answers · asked by pierce_banderiezz 2 in Food & Drink ➔ Beer, Wine & Spirits
568 ml is a pint. so 284ml = half
2007-07-26 08:40:58 · answer #1 · answered by ? 3 · 5⤊ 1⤋
Half A Pint In Ml
2016-12-11 07:36:56 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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RE:
is 500 ml half a pint?
2015-08-13 03:07:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO. But roughly. It is 500 milliliters or half a liter. Whether it is slightly more than a pint or slightly less than a pint depends if you are using the US measurements, or the UK measurements. That confusion, that a pint can mean different things, is one reason to just call it half a liter and drink it.
2007-07-26 09:15:54 · answer #4 · answered by JuanB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
half a litre . it's about 18 fluid ounzes and there's 20 fluid ounzes Half a pint would be about 260 ml
2007-07-26 08:53:55 · answer #5 · answered by weasel bat 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
568ml = 1 pint
284ml =1/2 pint
2007-07-26 08:42:28 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
1 US pint = 473.176475 ml
2007-07-26 08:42:28 · answer #7 · answered by willa 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No 284ml is half a pint
2007-07-27 00:09:21 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
no it is significantly more, nearly a pint in fact - 568 ml to a pint
2007-07-26 08:44:37 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No! In fact some public houses have been prosecuted for selling 500ml as a pint.(short measure) Do not be confused by the U.S.(sic) answers ,as there are only 16 fluid ounces in a U.S.pint as against 20 in the U.K.
2007-07-27 03:46:17 · answer #10 · answered by mactheboat 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋