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There is probably no other dogma of the Catholic religion which is so frequently misunderstood, and which occasions so much opposition on the part of the non-Catholic friends, as that which proclaims the infallible teaching authority of the Church as centered in the person of her supreme head, the pope, the ruler of Christ's Church on earth. Let me invite my non-Catholic readers to consider this question in a calm, friendly manner.

2007-07-26 07:19:53 · 13 answers · asked by flannelpajamas1 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

I'm a former catholic. The pope is human thus is fallible like the rest of us.

2007-07-26 07:22:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5 1

The Doctrine of the Infallibility of the Pope was made a part of the Catholic Church's doctrine in 1870 and says that the Pope is infallible in his teaching when he speaks "ex cathedra" or in his role as the Apostolic Leader of the Church. It has only been used once since it waas defined and accepted by the First Vatican Council.

As such it could be a very good safeguard against error in the teachings of the Church. However, the issue that remains is how do the other denominations feel about what is being said and will they accept that teachings. Also, what if he is wrong, but uses his authority to declare a doctrine. Can he be held accountable for insisting on a false doctrine?

2007-07-26 07:36:12 · answer #2 · answered by John H 4 · 1 1

Alot of non catholics think papal infallibility means that popes can never sin(impeccability) which Papal Infallibility does not mean at all. There have been plenty of immoral/amoral and even wicked people who were popes as well aspopes who were saints.
Others think it means that the pope cannot make mistakes about science,politics,economics and other secular ubjects but that is completely untrue.
Others think that every theological opinion of the pope(or in the church ,for that matter) is infallible but that also is untrue.
The pope has to meet many criteria for an ex cathedra infallible statement on faith and morals
Read the Catechism of the Catholic Church paragraphs 889-892
If the Church(and Papal Infallibility is an application of the infallibility of the One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church as Spirit-guided teaching institution) is not infallible when proclaiming dogma and basic right and wrong then how can we ever be sure of an interpretation of the Bible and Tradition?
How would we even know what books are really part of the Bible?

2007-07-26 07:35:30 · answer #3 · answered by James O 7 · 1 2

The infallibility of the pope is not a doctrine that suddenly appeared in Church teaching; rather, it is a doctrine which was implicit in the early Church. It is only our understanding of infallibility which has developed and been more clearly understood over time. In fact, the doctrine of infallibility is implicit in these Petrine texts: John 21:15–17 ("Feed my sheep . . . "), Luke 22:32 ("I have prayed for you that your faith may not fail"), and Matthew 16:18 ("You are Peter . . . ").
Christ instructed the Church to preach everything he taught (Matt. 28:19–20) and promised the protection of the Holy Spirit to "guide you into all the truth" (John 16:13). That mandate and that promise guarantee the Church will never fall away from his teachings (Matt. 16:18, 1 Tim. 3:15), even if individual Catholics might.
As Christians began to more clearly understand the teaching authority of the Church and of the primacy of the pope, they developed a clearer understanding of the pope’s infallibility. This development of the faithful’s understanding has its clear beginnings in the early Church. For example, Cyprian of Carthage, writing about 256, put the question this way, "Would the heretics dare to come to the very seat of Peter whence apostolic faith is derived and whither no errors can come?" (Letters 59 [55], 14). In the fifth century, Augustine succinctly captured the ancient attitude when he remarked, "Rome has spoken; the case is concluded" (Sermons 131, 10).

2007-07-26 07:24:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Why does Divinity AKA God need someone (Papa?) to "Check His Homework"??? If, (and it's True) God preserved the "Body" of "Scripture Texts" so that We were able to Compile them into the book we now call the Bible, For All Men (Women too!) to Read & Understand, then Why is Papa telling the World that the Catholic church is the "Only True Religion"??? Scripture Speaks Directly to this Point when it says:
"The word of God is alive and powerful, sharper than any two edged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of the soul and the spirit, of the joints and marrow and is a critic of the thoughts and intents of the heart." (Hebrews 4:12)
"All scripture is God Breathed and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness that the man of God might be mature, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." (2 Tim. 3:16-17)
"Study to show yourself approved unto God a workman that needs not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
(2 Tim. 2:15)
U Do Realize don't U that the "Infallibility" of the "Papa" only occured 600 Years after "Christianity" & a Whole Lotta Previous "Papas" Right??? Nicolas I (858-867) in an effort to "Promote" "his Claim" of Universal Authority had a book written called the "Pseudoisidorian Decretals" in 857containing "Documents" that Purported to be "Letters & Decrees of Bishops & Councils of the 2nd. & 3rd. centuries, all tending to "Exalt the Power of the Papa". These were later proven to be Forgeries & Corruptions of Ancient Historical Documents labeled "The Most Colossal Literary Fraud in History"!!! yet it "Strengthened the "Papacy" more than any other one agency, and forms to a Large extent the Basis of the "Canon Law" of the church. Many Papas from Innocent III (1198-1216) onward advocated the "Decretals" for their own "Power Lust", but the "Councils" of Pisa (1409), Constance (1414) and Basel (1431) EXPRESSLY DECREED THAT PAPAS ARE SUBJECT TO COUNCILS!!! Then in 1854, Pius IX "Of his own Sovereign Authority, and Without the cooperation of a Council", proclaimed the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary, as a sort of "Feeler" to the world church. When there was no "Rebuttal", he called the Vatican Council (1870) for the Express purpose of having himself declared "Infallible", which, under his skillful manipulation, they did!!! And so U see Men, NOT God, say the "Papa" is "Infallible" in order to "Maintain Control" over the "Body" of its' members!!! This is so "Blatant", one would think that they could have at least staged some sort of "Miracle at the Grotto" play with a pigeon coming down to sit on the guy or something!!! John

2007-07-27 07:38:18 · answer #5 · answered by moosemose 5 · 0 0

God is infallible, humans are not. If humans were capable of being infallible, the world would not be in the state it's in today. The Catholic church has made errors while governed by an infallible Pope; later, they've apologized for those errors. An example would be their woefully inadequate response to Hitler and his anti-semitic policies before and during WWII. One who is infallible does not need to apologize, because he/she does not make mistakes.

2007-07-26 11:51:28 · answer #6 · answered by Michael B - Prop. 8 Repealed! 7 · 1 0

The Catholic Church teaches that the Pope is infallible at closely defined times.

The Pope is only infallible when he, in union with the body of bishops, solemnly teaches that a doctrine as true. This is called "ex cathedra", literally meaning in Latin "from the chair".

This comes from the words of Jesus to Peter (the first Pope) and the Apostles (the first bishops), "Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven" (Matthew 18:18) and "He who hears you hears me" (Luke 10:16).

At all other times the Pope can be just as wrong or sinful as you and me and be in need of forgiveness.

For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, section 891: http://www.usccb.org/catechism/text/pt1sect2chpt3art9p4.htm#891 and http://www.catholic.com/library/Papal_Infallibility.asp

With love in Christ.

2007-07-26 16:37:49 · answer #7 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0 1

Jesus said that ALL have sinned and come short of the glory of God. That includes the Pope, (and BYE also Mary). How can he be infallible if he is a sinner like the rest of us? Please understand, I am not anti-Catholic. I think many Catholics, those who take God and His Word seriously, are great Christian people. But like the rest of the different religions, those who are Easter and Christmas Christians just don't get it.

2007-07-26 07:28:14 · answer #8 · answered by susie 3 · 2 1

All humans are fallible - that includes the Pope. It would be arrogant to claim otherwise. Nowhere in the bible does it mention the word Pope let alone say that he is infallible.


Edit
Is the thumbs down because the last sentence is an unpalatable fact?

2007-07-26 07:25:49 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Amen to that. If the Pope's teaching authority was not infallible, that would mean that the Church is false, which would mean that Jesus was a liar and that he did not fulfill his promise to send the Paraclete, the Holy Spirit to strengthen and teach Christ's Church.

2007-07-26 07:24:01 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

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