It stated that a muslim man had said the word divorce three times in his sleep and that that constitutes a legal divorce.
Is that true? There has to be more to it than that? Or was the article crap?
2007-07-26 00:20:00 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Not to mention you just said it three times. Well, huh, interesting, thank you all.
LOTR Fan, always a pleasure to see you.
Be well
2007-07-26 00:34:54 · update #1
LOL! Yeah I read that oo. Talk about a stupid ruling. In fact, according to islam that would not be valid. First of all, he has to say when he's fully aware and also when he isn't emotional(angry etc). Secondly, it is highly recommended that he not say it 3 times all at once and that he say it once. Saying it 3 times is unfair to them both because now their marriage is gone completely unless she marries someone else and then divorces him and then her husband gets back with her to start anew. Also there is a waiting period for a woman after a divorce is prnounced of about 45 days because this gives time to find out if she's pregnant (and then the divorce is not valid in that case) and also for them to see if they can make up.
Anyway - maybe you got more than you asked for but there it is. :)
2007-07-26 01:10:51 · answer #1 · answered by aali_and_harith 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No it doesn't.
The divorce, firstly, has to be said intentionally.
Secondly, if a man says the word three times intentionally and at one time, it only counts as one. After a month, the man can proclaim the second divorce and the next month, the third divorce. Only then the divorce is considered valid.
2007-07-26 00:37:40 · answer #2 · answered by Wanderer 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No No it`s not legal divorce man
legal divorce happened only when you said something you sure about
but we Muslim don`t like to mention the word "divorce" CZ it`s harsh somehow and we pray for God to keep us far away from divorce CZ it`s broke the families
therefore the article you read is fake
2007-07-26 00:28:25 · answer #3 · answered by hado 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
i'm not very sure, but i don't think it is valid, since it doesn't seem like the person meant it, and if that is the case, then i'm pretty sure it wouldn't count as a divorce..again, i don't have any sources, other than my very unreliable brain, so don't quote me..; )
2007-07-26 00:44:05 · answer #4 · answered by Lamya 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I shall leave that to the Shariah Law experts wherever they are....
In the meantime i think i need to go learn.
Edit: And you too!
2007-07-26 00:24:29 · answer #5 · answered by LOTR Fan 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Some men would wish it is that easy, but no that is not true.
2007-07-26 00:49:25 · answer #6 · answered by MUHAMMAD 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Saudi Arabian law. It is true.
2007-07-26 00:23:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
i dont know about it i cant say if its true or not.....
2007-07-26 00:38:44 · answer #8 · answered by kudos_009 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No! not at all.
2007-07-26 00:30:42 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋