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How would I prove that the circumference of an ellipse with equation x^2 + 2y^2 = 2 is the same as the arc length of y=sin(x) on the interval [0,2pi]?

2007-07-25 15:26:06 · 2 answers · asked by Elk n' Fresh 4 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Are they even equal?

2007-07-25 16:01:31 · update #1

2 answers

Circumference of ellipse x^2 + 2y^2 = 2
Let x = √2 sin θ, y = cos θ, then x^2 + 2y^2 = 2 sin^2 θ + 2 cos^2 θ = 2, so x and y trace out the given ellipse as θ varies from 0 to 2π.
dx/dθ = √2 cos θ and dy/dθ = -sin θ, so the circumference is given by
∫(0 to 2π) √((dx/dθ)^2 + (dy/dθ)^2)
= ∫(0 to 2π) √((√2 cos θ)^2 + (-sin θ)^2)
= ∫(0 to 2π) √(2 cos^2 θ + sin^2 θ)
= ∫(0 to 2π) √(1 + cos^2 θ)
= arc length of y = sin(x) on [0, 2π]

2007-07-25 16:23:53 · answer #1 · answered by Scarlet Manuka 7 · 1 0

The spinoff of tanhx is truly one million/(coshx)^2. right this is the info why. you may truly coach that the spinoff of cosh is sinh and the spinoff of sinh is cosh. as quickly as you do this, tanhx=sinhx/coshx. quotient rule is spinoff of a/b=(bda-adb)/b^2. so the spinoff of tanhx=(sinhx^2-coshx^2) / (coshx)^2 after algebra, it equals (sinhx+coshx) (sinhx-coshx) / (coshx)^2. changing those into the e^x format makes truly some the e^x and e^-x cancel out, leaving you with (e^x * e^-x) / (coshx)^2 = one million / (coshx)^2 :)

2016-11-10 07:59:59 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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