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Subject: FW: Comments on NWT from "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION" by
Jason David BeDuhn
Book: "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION: ACCURACY AND BIAS IN ENGLISH
TRANSLATIONS OF THE NEW TESTAMENT"
University in Flagstaff. He holds a B.A. in Religious Studies form the University of Illinois.,
Urbana, an M.T.S. in New Testament and Christian Origins form Harvard Divinity School
and a Ph.D. in Comparative Study of Religions form Indiana Universitv. Bloomington.)

The Eight English Translations Compared in BeDuhn's book
are: - The King James Version (KJV) - The Amplified Bible
(AB)
- The Living Bible (LB)
- The New American Bible (NAB)
- The New American Standard Bible
(NASB) - The New International Version
(NIV) - The New World Translation (NW)
- The (New) Revised Standard Version
(NRSV) - Today's English Version (TEV)
Excerpts from his book:

2007-07-24 11:24:35 · 15 answers · asked by zorrro857 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

Actually under the word for word translation of the Diaglott, (left side of the page)

It reads "a god was the word."

http://www.thedcl.org/bible/diaglott-nt/ed-john.pdf

The NAB in it's foot note states: "Was God: lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification. "


Predication is another word meaning quality.

This means that God(2) means the Word has Godly qualities.

http://www.nccbuscc.org/nab/bible/john/john1.htm

I found this interesting quote yesterday.

Concerning the NIV:

Bruce Metzger: "It is surprising that translators who profess to have 'a high view of scripture" should take liberties with text by omitting words or, more often, by adding words that are not in the manuscripts."

In my years of study and research I can agree with Dr. BeDuhn I have yet found where the NWT has added or deleted words to 'prove' a bible teaching.

.

2007-07-25 10:39:49 · answer #1 · answered by TeeM 7 · 2 1

I believe it is, not because I am one of Jehovah's Witnesses.
I believe so because I was searching for Bible that was easier to read than my King James which at the time was 14 years old, it is now 49.
I also have my Great Grandmothers King James bible and it has been in the family since 1941.
I use both of them and my NWT to compare the different thoughts being convened and we used yet another King James that was 20 years old for a talk on the school at the Kingdom Hall one night.
All 3 King James worded the same scripture in a different way.
So I didn't spot there. I found other who are not JW's and had King James bibles about the same age as the other 3 and this is what I found.
Some of the scriptures were different than the newer or older bibles and It also depended on who published that version of the King James because even those at the same age had different versions of the scriptures as well.
I wish I had that info still but I have since gone threw a fire and flood in my home.
I know that I can find it again with time, but it would prove to be a good research project for anyone who wants to prove me wrong.

2007-07-24 13:27:18 · answer #2 · answered by Here I Am 7 · 4 3

What a joke! Putting your trust in some guy, with or without a PhD, that attended a secular school to supposedly learn about the Bible to tell us which one is more accurate for reading is nothing but a joke! It's quite insulting to say the least!

Secular schools do nothing more than claim God doesn't exist to begin with. Secular schools don't care and don't know and don't want to know anything about the Bible. Yet, they are going to us which one is more accurate? This really is a matter of who's kidding whom?

The Bible, the Scriptures of the Old Testament and the New Testament, preserved for us in the Masoretic text (Old Testament) Textus Receptus (New Testament) and in the King James Bible, is verbally and plenarily inspired of God. It is the inspired, inerrant, infallible, and altogether authentic, accurate and authoritative Word of God, therefore the supreme and final authority in all things (II Tim. 3:16-17; II Peter 1:21; Rev. 22:18-19).

Dr. Frank Logsdon was co-founder of The New American Standard Version. As people begin confronting Dr. Logsdon on some the NASV's serious omissions and errors. He re-examined the evidence and this was his verdict:

"I must under God denounce every attachment to the New American Standard Version. I'm afraid I'm in trouble with the Lord . . . I wrote the format . . . I wrote the preface . . . I'm in trouble; . . . its wrong, terribly wrong; its frighteningly wrong . . .The deletions are absolutely frightening . . . there are so many . . . Are we so naive that we do not suspect Satanic deception in all of this?"

Dr. Frank Logsdon
Co-founder, New American Standard Version

2007-07-25 15:17:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Praise Jah You people.......
All Holy Bibles...
The Gospel,
The Torah,
The Psalms,
Same God, YHWH.
Pick any 1 YOU want 2 use.
Only 1 Is The Most Accurate.

HearYea! Hear Yea!
Make Way For Jehovah!

2007-07-24 11:52:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 7 0

Too many people talking about John 1:1 and none of them have seen the greek scripture to see that both time the word "god" was written different , why? if the apostle was talking bout the same thing why used differenet words?

2007-07-24 20:23:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

thank you for the information

when I first started studying -back in the 80's- one of the first things I did was investigate the various translations of the scriptures. My research showed then that the witnesses were accurate in what they said and were correct for using this translation.

I also researched the words used, like "Sheol", "Gehenna"
I was really sort of shocked!! they were right!!
the NWT is such a great tool for studying God's word!

I encourage all to investigate the translations for themselves--they will truly benefit

2007-07-24 12:30:42 · answer #6 · answered by sugarpie 4 · 7 2

I presume he also explains why the Greek translator that the NWT used wrote to ask that his name be taken off the translation because of the misprepresentation of his Greek translation giving an inaccurate interpretaion Of several key meanings and verses such as John 1. and the explanation of there not being a need gor a word such as the or an in Greek because it is determined by the placemeent in the sentence not by either of these terms.

2007-07-24 12:27:50 · answer #7 · answered by David F 5 · 1 4

People who speak and read more than one language, say that the King James version is not that accurate as to what the bible is saying. The NWT is much more accurate.
The next best thing would be to learn Hebrew.

2007-07-24 11:29:48 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 7 2

It's too bad he isn't a born again Christian and that he didn't take into account the bad grammar used in the NWT.

In John 1:1 most Bibles have translated that the word "was God" however the NWT has translated that the word was "a god" The argument is that since there is not a definate article then it should be translated that way in Greek. However if that is true in the Greek then this would apply to the Greek through out the bible.

For instance "Blessed be the peace makers ,for they will be sons of a god" Matthew 5:9 also "There came a man who was sent from a god" John1:6.

If John had intended to say that the word was just divine then he had a proper greek adjective (theios) had he wanted to comunicate that. But John says the word "Theos".

2007-07-24 11:35:07 · answer #9 · answered by Martin S 7 · 5 8

The New World Translation which is the Jehovah Witnesses' own translation of the Bible. The JW's claim that five Greek Scholars in the Watchtower did this translation. but it becomes quite obvious to anyone who knows Greek or Hebrew that there are gross errors in this translation. It was obviously produced as a conscious attempt to make the Bible fit preconceived Witness theology.

In l976 and l977 over a million Jehovah's Witnesses left the Watchtower, deeply disillusioned with the organization that claimed to be the voice of God on earth, but had proven again and again to be a false prophet. And with the NWT - false doctrine.

2007-07-24 13:49:06 · answer #10 · answered by Jeancommunicates 7 · 2 6

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