The word isn't in there, along with many other words, but the concept/act is clearly outlined and condemned. Read Genesis, particularly the story of Sodom and Gomorrah. Now go to the book of Jude (before Revelation) which condemns the act.
2007-07-31 12:31:06
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answer #1
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answered by Andre 7
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There's no need to be concerned with any translation of the Bible that contains references to homosexuals or any other particular grouping of people.
There are no chosen people. We are all God's people.
Do not worry about translations of the Bible that ridicule, degrade or even glorify any particular grouping of beings.
Race is merely a man-made concept designed to divide.
Give praise to God by enjoying the wonderment of the creation (Universe).
2007-08-01 08:16:50
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answer #2
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answered by Iconoclast 3
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Because some LIBERAL "Theologians" decided it was too harsh a word so they edited it out of their translations. This is one area where being "Politically Correct" is Biblically wrong to try and make the Word of God softer on sin is to hide from the truth. The Bible says that Homosexuality is a sin. Homosexuals and their supporters claim it is a choice, well on that I partly agree, for it is a Choice wether to follow Satan, or to follow God. Sodom was destroyed for the sin of Homosexuality, and America is rapidly heading down that path.
2007-07-31 02:11:45
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answer #3
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answered by cowboy_christian_fellowship 4
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You make an interesting point. Middle Easterners have always included a high percentage of homosexuals for an awfully long while.
I'd never considered the matter before, but nothing is mentioned in the New Testament about the sexual preferences of Jesus and his disciples. There's no reason to believe all, or some of them, weren't homosexual.
Probably nobody would have considered it worth mentioning because homosexuality's so pervasive among those Middle Eastern people he was among.
2007-07-24 10:36:31
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answer #4
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answered by Jack P 7
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The word homosexual was not even part of our vernacular until the mid 1800's. There are some that interpret the sex slaves, rape, and domination of captors of Biblical days to mean the same thing as homosexuality today. However, I believe they are mistaken. Because it was important in Biblical times to procreate, for protection, wealth, etc...homosexuality was frowned upon. I highly doubt that the Apostle Paul knew about any loving monogamous homosexual couples when he wrote his books for the Bible.
So, what we have are literalist fundamentalists making pronouncements on something that was really not known or understood in Biblical days. Likewise, people being born homosexual are pushed into lives of heavy drinking, drugs and promiscuous sex, because they cannot deal with the demands put on them by their families and churches...eventhough, they know they were born gay...they have great struggles because of judgemental people.
2007-07-24 10:35:30
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answer #5
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answered by G.C. 5
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It's not in the Greek, PERIOD....it's been ADDED with translations....and for those who'd claim the Greeks had no word for homosexuality.....roffle. Do you know ANYTHING about Greek and then Roman culture? Trust me, there were words in Greek *and* the Latin your King James edition relied heavily upon.
Christians who want to be mature Christians should read their bloody sacred book in its original language.
2007-07-24 11:10:58
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answer #6
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answered by LabGrrl 7
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It's because some homophobic Christians interpret Bible references to pederasty, male rape and male temple prostitution as homosexuality, the fact that not one of these are features of consenting homosexual relationships doesn't bother them one little bit because they have an anti-gay agenda to pursue, they don't care about truth..
If we took examples of heterosexual rape, paedophilia and temple prostitution in the Bible and said that this is heterosexuality where would we be?... but they blithely do this with homosexuality because they are deeply prejudiced.
There is no condemnation of consenting gay relationships in the Bible, in fact there are no references at all to consenting gay relationships.
The words homosexual and homosexuality or their equivalents are not found in Bible scripture at all.
Pederasty with young boy slaves was very common and thought little of in Biblical times(Leviticus), the rape of males by conquering soldiers was a common way to humiliate and assert victory, temple prostitution was sacred and accepted, it was not generally considered prostitution at all in those times but a way of uniting physically with the deity in the temple.
So many ancient cultural practices have been misinterpreted and twisted by translators and interpretors with a bias, or the bias of those religious organisations commissioning the translation to achieve a thoroughly exaggeratedly homophobic interpretation of scripture that is now institutionalised, it has destroyed many gay people's lives, although it is said you can 't win an argument with a man who is ignorant, I think it's possible to educate them.
2007-07-24 10:35:51
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answer #7
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answered by CHEESUS GROYST 5
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When the BIBLE was written the term homosexual did not exist.
So older translations of the bible do not use this word. In stead they are referred to as as those made that way by man{ cutting away the male orgin} or those made that way by GOD. They did not see this as we do to day. Hope this helps your understanding.
2007-07-24 10:38:17
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answer #8
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answered by zipper 7
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There wasn't a word in English for "homosexual" until about 150 years ago (give or take, I don't remember exact dates). The King James version of the Bible just didn't have an English word for it.
2007-07-24 10:31:08
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answer #9
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answered by atheist 6
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Its because the word in the original text was not homosexual.
But its irrelevant anyway.
Using a 2000 year old book to persecute a section of society for the way they are born is as close to pure evil as I think it is possible to come. And this says more about the people than the book - perhaps they just like to persecute.
2007-07-24 10:30:24
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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