2007-07-24 07:40:10 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
yes
2007-07-24 07:42:48 · answer #1 · answered by Larry V 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depending upon which classification of people they were. Far beyond your ability to understand there is a point where a race or a tribe of people or a group of people become so vile, and wicked there is no way to change or turn their nature to any thing that is good. That these people were so bent and so wicked that even the children were prone to do wickedness and this continuously. Thus their destruction was a stop gap measure to ensure the survival of the whole earth. God did it in when he had Noah build an ark. For that generation was so perveted it could not be saved. God did to the inhabitants of the twin cities of the plain of Sodom and Gemorrah except Lot and his wife and their two daughters but look at the lifestyle of what occurred after their rescue they thought that incestual relationship was ok and to get their own father drunk to cover their crime. There is also a generation now that is being forged that there is no hope of them ever being capable of anything but evil and that to wax worse and worse.
2007-07-24 14:51:37 · answer #2 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Okay, here's the deal, I believe in God and follow Jesus' teachings. I cannot, however, choose to accept that a God that we see in human form in the New Testament, that appeared as a loving, merciful and graceful God could resemble the one we see in the OT. I believe God got a bad rap for a lot of things done in his name in the OT, (just like today when muslims are killing people and christians are blowing up abotion clinics) and if he is such a fogiving, loving God in the NT, why did He change?
The OT was written thousands of years ago, Moses' books around 1400 BC. Think about other cultures at the time. Everything they saw and could not explain was from God. Lightning was fire from heaven, a virus was a judgement from God, etc. Again, I think many things were wrongfully associated to God.
Here's a question, why would God send Jesus to die (John 3:16) and to go to Hades, or the grave and preach to those who are dead and in "prison" about redemption? (1 Peter 3:18-20)
Why then would God kill all unbelievers in the OT, and then for Him to come and die in the NT, and go preach to their dead souls so they can spend eternity with the one who called for their slaughter when they were alive? That doesn't make any sense and I wouldn't want to spend eternity with a God like that. God is too loving and merciful for that. I will not follow a God who mercilessly kills people because He doesn't like the way they live. Thats not the God I believe in or the God in the NT.
2007-07-24 15:08:05 · answer #3 · answered by mjbrodka 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes in some cases.
When they moved into the promised land from egypt, their orders were to wipe everyone out inhabiting the land. This was to ensure that they didnt intermarry symbolizing a purity within Israel and also symbolizes the future destruction of the world.
2007-07-24 14:51:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The God with no true name is a vicious God that exacts a rule of death rather than life. It demands a life of worship of death of those who follow it on earth and promises, without proof, of eternal life elsewhere.
Worship of death is believing rewards and true life can only come after death and is upgraded if the worshipper brings death or a belief in death to non believers.
2007-07-24 14:53:53 · answer #5 · answered by Terry 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They were all sinful to the point of unrepentance
2007-07-24 14:44:25 · answer #6 · answered by Gods child 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes indeed he did.
2007-07-24 14:42:55 · answer #7 · answered by Molly 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋