Grammer help please?

Question

Ok i'm using my friend's account, but never mind.

The question is:

Why and when do we state in a sentence ''has had'' or ''had had'' or ''have had'', etc. I dont get it. You know i'm not a native English speaker, so i really need someone to explain.

If you are going to mention grammer terms like ''simple form, passive form, etc'' please explain what you are talking about coz i have no clue.

Thanks in advance!

Answer 1

It looks like you need spelling help as well - "grammar".

This all depends on the tenses.

Let's say you went to a park.
If you only went once, you'd say, "I had a good time."
If you went many times, and were suggesting it to someone, you would say, "Go there - I have had a good time there."

The difference shows a single event in the past vs. multiple events in the past (which may continue).

If you were speaking about John, multiple times in the past, you would use "has had."

"Had had" is a very awkward construction, and is rarely used currently.

I hope this helps, and that you have had good answers given to you! :o)

Answer 2

That's tough. I will give yuo the equivalents in Spanish, but I don't know if you speak it.

has had - ha tenido
had had - había tenido or hubiera tenido or haya tenido
have had - ha tenido

Has and have are the same tense different person. Has and Have had are past progresive tenses meaning you are talking about the past as if it were happening while you speak of it (that's probablly kind of wierd to say). Had had is a form of past conditional. YOu are talking about something that could have happened but didn't or comparing to somehting that did happen.

That was the best pizza he had had in a long time.
Were he to have had a better grade in Spanish class, he would have gone onto the next class.
Had he had a better grade... same as above
I have had the worst day ever.
He has had the worst day ever.

Answer 3

Okay:

HAS had is singular - which means one thing or person you're explaining. Example "jerry HAS had too much to eat" if you put "My friends HAS had too much to eat" it doesnt make sense.

soo...

HAVE had is plural - meaning more than ONE person or thing - then you can say "My friends HAVE had too much to eat" and you cant use the last sentence "Jerry HAVE had too much..etc." hope you see the difference..it's not natural sounding in the sentence.

HAD had can be confusing EVEN for english natives :-) So the best i can explain it is this way - "He HAD had a bad day" meaning he already had a bad day - past tense - but for ONE thing. You could just say "He had a bad day" but some books and people can add the extra "had" but either way whether you use it or not HAD had is past tense - meaning it already happened and is explaining the situation.

See? Told you the last one was confusing!

Answer 4

Read what Wide Awake said about "has had" and "have had"--essentially, this refers to something that started in the past but is continuing or might continue in the present.

When I teach English, I refer to "had had" (technically the past perfect tense) as "two steps into the past." Let's say you are telling a story about what your dog did yesterday --"My dog jumped on the table and broke my antique china bowl"--but you want to add something that happened even further into the past--"I had had it for twenty years." So the dog's jumping is one step back into the past, but having the bowl is a further step back into the past.

Other examples with other verbs: I WENT to Disneyland yesterday; I HAD never BEEN there before. I HAVE GONE to Disney World many times, though.

Answer 5

Hi.

Technically this is what is called Perfect Tense; present perfect tense: have/has + Verb 3 and past perfect tense: had + Verb 3 - I presume you've understood the 3 forms of English verbs, the regular and irregular verbs. In this case the forms of the verb 'to have' are have/has - had - had (as the forms of the verb 'to go' are go/goes - went - gone.

'Has/have + had' has nothing to do with past tense. It indicates that an activity is done or completed, and that's all. The adverbs of time to go with perfect tense are among others already, just, lately, and recently. While, in the past tense the adverbs of time are like yesteday, last week, etc.

'Has had' is used with singular pronoun/subject like he, she, it, John, Anne, the cat. (etc.)
'Have had' is used with first and second pronouns like I, you, we, and plural pronoun/subject like they, John and Anne, the cats. (etc.)

In a sentence, it is:
John has already had his lunch.
We have already had our lunch.
I have rung up my mother today. (it doesn't matter what time, but today I've completed the 'obligation' to talk to my mother. It will be different from: I rang up my mother 2 hours ago. Here, the past tense is used.)

'Had + Verb 3' is the past perfect tense. I understand that past perfect tense cannot stand by itself as a full sentence.
In a sentence it will be:
John had just had lunch when we came over his place and asked him to have lunch with us.
They told me that she had had a boy friend already. So, I'd better stay away.

Sorry if it is boring and a bit technical. I hope this helps your understanding.

Good luck..

Bye.

Answer 6

I shall try to help you.
For example: He has had a cold, meaning that his cold is over and he is better. past tense
For example: I had had that cold last week, meaning that I also was sick. past tense, altho the second 'had' is not a necessary word, can be left out.
For example: I, too have had that experience. past tense, but explaining a situation
Hope this helps. Keep going to school. best wishes

Answer 7

It is grammatically incorrect to use two verbs in a sentence back to back. It is accepted to speak and use it but not on paper.

There must ALWAYS be a subject and verb agreement, not subject and two verbs.

This is possible in the Romance languages (Spanish, French, Portuguese, Romanian, and Italian) but not English.

Answer 8

Those forms are tenses of the verb "to have".

I have had the measles for a week now.
I had had the measles for a week when my neighbor came to check up on me.
On Tuesday, I will have had the measles for week.

Answer 9

It has to do with present tense [happening at the present time] or past tense [already taken place]. Example, "Joe has had enough to eat." [now, as we speak, present tense], and, "Joe had had headaches in his youth." [already taken place, past tense]. Now then, there is first person and second person. First person is "I" and "you"..."I [ or you] have had a bad day." [ That's first person, past tense], and "He,[she, or it] has had a bad day". [That's called second person, past tense].

That's probably "as clear as mud". lol

Answer 10

i cant remember all the terms...read your book
has had an operation
thats past tense