Christians scared to answer?!! Plz read all & give serious, logical response. TY?

Question

God says in the Bible about David "thou art my son: today I have begotten thee." (Psalms 2:7) and " And (I) will be a father unto you and you shall be my sons and daughters saith the Lord Almighty." (Corinthians 6:18)

Jesus also says "That ye may be the children of your father." (John 5:45)

Jesus prayed to Almighty God yet people call him God or son of God. He was merely a messenger to the people, right? He said "I can of mine own self do nothing." And more importantly Jesus said:

"but in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of God" (Matthew 15:9)

Some people may say "oh, but Jesus said I and the father are one" which would mean one of two things: 1. you are misinterpretating a metaphorical statement as literal 2. the Bible is contradictory

Answer 1

You are in error because you do not know the scriptures worth beans.

Psalms 2:7. David wrote it, but it's not talking about David.

Hebrews 1:5 For to which of the angels did he say at any time, "You are my Son. Today have I become your father?" and again, "I will be to him a Father, and he will be to me a Son?"

Paul quoted Psalms 2:7 in Hebrews, but this isn't about Paul either. They are both talking about Jesus.

So, scared? No. Not worth much of my time? I think so.

Answer 2

First you have done exactly what the Christian Scientists have done, and that is to take the biblical phrases out of context.

You need to read the bible, and all of it, you cant just use one or two phrases.

First Jesus is the Son of God. God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy spirit are one. the bible is not contradictory. So I will challenge you.

All are made, (begotten) of God.
If you cant see that there is a higher power, then i feel sorry for you. Because one day you will be in hell.
Read the bible, from front to back. cover to cover. In that time, you will find that it is not contradictory, but that you are being misled by those who say it is.

When God says, I have begotten you, it is a statement that says He has begotten all of us,

Answer 3

>Some people may say "oh, but Jesus said I and the father are one" which would mean one of two things: 1. you are misinterpretating a metaphorical statement as literal 2. the Bible is contradictory

You left out a 3rd possibility: 3. God can do miracles, including manifesting himself into a human body and seeing that body pray to the father manifestation.

Jesus was accused of blasphemy by the pharisees when he answered their question as to his identity. You don't get accused of blasphemy for claiming to be a man. I assure you, you don't want to agree with the Pharisees on this issue.

Answer 4

I'm no Bible scholar, but I don't believe God and Jesus and the Holy Spirit are totally one large being all squeezed on the Throne. It's a concept beyond our understanding, for Them to all be One but not the same Being - I've always considered it a triangle, with Jesus and god and the h. spirit spread on the three sides, the area in the middle the Trinity. Without One, the other two cannot exist... without one side of the triangle, it's no longer a triangle ... am I making any sense? Just to give my input, it's something none of us can ever understand, like the concept of God being outside time, or the infiniteness of the universe.

Answer 5

I agree with you in that Jesus was sent to earth as a messenger of God.... and there are many misinterpretations of the Bible, the fundamentalist Christians are absolutely ridiculous about their interpretations of the scriptures.

I believe that Jesus was a man - like any other man that made the choice to follow God and go into the ministry.
He did not start that ministry until he was 33 years old. What was his life like before then? I'd venture to guess he was just like everybody else back then - he married, had a wife and kids, worked as a carpenter.

Jesus and the Father are one, just like we are all part of the Father. It's like the ocean- if you take one tiny drop of water out of the ocean, it's still the ocean.
We are ALL one with God, some of us are just a bit more pro-active than others.

Answer 6

No my friend, Jesus is much more than a messenger. He is the only begotten Son of God, He is one with the Father from everlasting and the only means to salvation.

Matthew 3:17
and behold, a voice out of the heavens said, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased."

John 14:9
Jesus said to him, "Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how can you say, 'Show us the Father '?

John 14:6
Jesus said to him, "I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father but through Me

Answer 7

Christ Jesus was the Son of the Living God, he was not God.

Ps. 110:1: “The utterance of Jehovah to my [David’s] Lord is: ‘Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.’” (At Matthew 22:41-45, Jesus explained that he himself was David’s “Lord,” referred to in this psalm. So Jesus is not Jehovah but is the one to whom Jehovah’s words were here directed.)

The Scripture is not contradictory, some people have just chosen to follow the doctrine of man over God. And for all your fans of John 1:1, I thought I'd try to shed a bit of light.

If a passage can grammatically be translated in more than one way, what is the correct rendering? One that is in agreement with the rest of the Bible. If a person ignores other portions of the Bible and builds his belief around a favorite rendering of a particular verse, then what he believes really reflects, not the Word of God, but his own ideas and perhaps those of another imperfect human.

John 1:1, 2:

RS reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.” (KJ, Dy, JB, NAB use similar wording.) However, NW reads: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This one was in the beginning with God.”

Which translation of John 1:1, 2 agrees with the context? John 1:18 says: “No one has ever seen God.” Verse 14 clearly says that “the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory.” Also, verses 1, 2 say that in the beginning he was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities.—Heb. 1:3.

Is the rendering “a god” consistent with the rules of Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was God.” But not all agree. In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,” Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·os´ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, JB and KJ both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as “a prophet.”

John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317.

In harmony with the above, AT reads: “the Word was divine”; Mo, “the Logos was divine”; NTIV, “the word was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.” Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as “a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as “gods” (Hebrew, ’elo·him´; Greek, the·oi´, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law.

Answer 8

No. You are misinterpretating scripture. Jesus always claimed to be God. When the Jews were debating with Him in John about seeing Abraham His response was, 'Before Abraham was born, I AM.' (John 8:58). This is the same name that God gave Moses when Moses asked Him who God was on Mt. Sinai.

Answer 9

Uh, first of all Matthew 19 is Jesus talking to Pharisees and teachers of the law who were questioning him. To give a little more scripture it says:

7You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you:
8" 'These people honor me with their lips,
but their hearts are far from me.
9They worship me in vain;
their teachings are but rules taught by men.

Note that 15:9 does not say the commandments of God. Which version of the Bible did you get that from?

Also you have to realize that when Christ was on earth in the flesh, he was subject to God just like the rest of us. He prayed to God, his healings miracles were done throught the Holy Spirit, he was a man subject to God the Father. The book of Philippian 2:5-10 says the following concerning Christ:

5Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6Who, being in very nature[a] God,
did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7but made himself nothing,
taking the very nature[b] of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
and became obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
9Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
10that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,

This all means that Jesus was in very nature God, but for our sake poured out his divinity and took the form of a human so that we might be saved. He lowered himself to man status out of love for us, to save us! He humbled himself and was obedient to God the Father, even unto death. Then God the Father restored Jesus to his former glory, his former position, and gave him the name that is above every other name, Hallelujah!

Brother I hope this clears it up for you some. I could go on and on with John 1 were Jesus is the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God, and how Jesus created everything in the universe with his hands, and ...

Answer 10

All I know to be true to my heart is you cannot (as per the Bible) pray to God unless you go through Jesus. Jesus was human to show us He knows where we stand. His spirit is in our hearts if we believe in Him. Good luck and God bless!