I know that if one person in the proposed marriage is 18 or over and one is under 18 and not emancipated, there has to be gardian approval through signature, but does one parent have to sign, or do both?
And if it is both, what if you currently have a restraining order against the second parent, does that opt. them out ?
(I would hope)
And suppose a current investigation is going on, a statutory rape case, because the man in the relationship is over 18 and the girl is under, does this cancel out due to the marriage?
And one last point, will the marriage be subjected to screening?
To see if it wasn't just a fradulent marriage to stop one from being persecuted? (Ie: Statutory rape)
I was up late thinking about this last night, after watching a Law and Order :SVU.
Your answers are really appriciated !
2007-07-23 06:25:36 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
Which parent has to sign will depend on the legal relationship between each parent to the child. The restraining order would not change if a parent is required to sign; the parent loosing parental rights would.
The marriage would not cancel out the statutory rape case since the crime has been already been committed.
2007-07-23 06:31:04 · answer #1 · answered by davidmi711 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think your questions have multiple answers. First regarding the parent signature the custodial parent would sign. I am not sure if the marriage will stop the statutory rape case but the parent is usually the one who files in cases like that. So if they are filing I don't think they would be giving permission for marriage. I don't think that the marriage would be subject to screening because the underage person probably really wants to be with the older person. You had a lot of free time on your hands next time just go to sleep.
2007-07-23 06:33:50 · answer #2 · answered by tikababy 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It depends on the state, and how the law is written.
Most date back from the 1700s and 1800s, when the concept of legal age for purposes of marriage was very different.
In older cultures, including ours of past centuries, marriage age for females was determined based on when they reached puberty. Because that was when "nature" determined they were ready to mate.
It's only in the past century or so that the concept of children under 16 or 18 being unable to do what's "natural".
2007-07-23 06:31:26 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i like that show too!
2007-07-23 07:10:34 · answer #4 · answered by King Leonidus! 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋