Notice how Imacatholic2 conveniently leaves out the fact that Jesus was speaking to the crowds SPECIFICALLY about the scribes and pharisees! And who are they?? They are the religious leaders of their day. And notice how many times in chapter 23 Jesus says to them "WOE TO YOU SCRIBES AND PHARISEES". He (JESUS) was definitely trying to bring attention to their deeds! He calls them HYPOCRITES several times, and he even goes as far as calling them "SERPENTS, OFFSPRING OF VIPERS", (verse 33) calling attention to their lying and false teachings! No No Imacatholic2 you can't sugarcoat this one! And you can't twist it around to fit what YOU think is acceptable or valid, because OBVIOUSLY JESUS has the final word, NOT the CATHOLIC CHURCH or YOU! And NOWHERE in the Bible does it say to go CONFESS ANYTHING to a mere MAN here on earth who sits in some box. Rather it tells us that ONLY Jesus intercedes on our behalf. John 14:6, 14
2007-07-24 14:08:30
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
1⤋
No where in the bible does Jesus Christ call any man his father. There is no account of Jesus calling Joseph his father.
When ever Jesus refers to his and our father he is only ever referring to God.
In the same sense as Jesus Christ did not call any earthly man father. It is my understanding that we should follow his example and not call any earthly man your father.
Jesus Christ gives a reason why we shouldn't call anyone on earth your father and that is because we have only one Father, and he is in heaven.
We can refer to men as having fathered us or to other men as being a father and we can refer to ourselves as having fathered others or that we are a father to others but to call anyone on earth your father goes against the teachings of Jesus.
We have only one Father, and he is in heaven.
2014-05-04 18:43:07
·
answer #2
·
answered by ? 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Hi
People love to use the verse Call no man your father?" (Mat 23:9-10)
But they do not have a grasp of the full complexity as to were they get this. The catholic church calls not just on the new testament as a following but the old.
Yet in the same sentence Jesus says "Nor are you to be called instructors, for you have one instructor, the Messiah." Using this passage to claim that hey cannot call a priest "father" would in turn mean that others could not call professors at Bible college,other ministers, "instructors." If we were to take this passage literally, it would mean that I could not call my earthly dad "father" either.
If we take a look into the bible as a whole we can see that the use of the word father is used in other scriptures give plenty of examples to the use of the word 'Father"
"Come with us and be our father and priest." Judges 18:19
Indeed, the Bible finds priesthood and fatherhood inseparably united.
In Christ Jesus I became your father through the Gospel" 1st Cor. 4:15.
2007-07-23 02:11:51
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
1⤋
Note that the Orthodox also call their priests "father". It should be noted that these churches don't assume the private interpretation that one person applies to a lone verse in some Protestant translation is the final authority on doctrine.
The Apostles Paul and Steven called other men "father" (cf. Acts 7:2 & Acts 22:1). Paul himself said that he fathered us through the gospel (1 Corinthians 4:15), which means that he is not our literal, biological father, but rather our father in a spiritual or religious sense (Father Paul!). So who is a better interpreter of Jesus' words? Some 21st century Protestant? Or the Apostle Paul? To ask the question is to answer it, and perhaps some here need to work on a notion of church authority rather than merely treating their own private interpretations as the final authority.
If that is not enough, then one need not look ant further than 1 Timothy 5:1. It is there that Paul specifically tells us to not disrespect a Presbyter, but instead to address him as father. In fact, 1 Timothy 5:1-2 sets up a structure similar to what one finds in the Catholic Church, with father presbyters, mother superiors, brother monks and sister nuns.
I would also invite others to look at the translators' preface to the original, first edition King James translation of 1611 (it is available online). There you will see them make reference to different Church Fathers, and they even call Saint Jerome "a most learned father".
============
Now, here, I would like to RESPOND TO THE PERSON WHO EMPLOYED THE NAME "JOHN THE BAPTIST"
First, regarding John 19:26-27, Jesus is telling the beloved disciple John that now Mary is his mother. How interesting that he said it to the author of Revelation, and that Revelation 12:17 states that Mary is the mother of the believers.
Second, regarding Matthew 16:18-19, that needs to be read in the context of Isaiah 22:20-22. Peter was given the keys, which imply a special office, just as Eliakim was given the keys. In other words, just as Eliakim was a sort of prime minister under the king in the Davidic line, and was a sort of father to the inhabitants of Judah and Jerusalem, so too, Peter was a sort of prime minister under the last and eternal King in the Davidic line, and was a sort of father to the members of the Church.
The name petros is merely the masculine of petra. For further insight, one is invited to check the Aramaic text in the Peshitta, where the word employed both times is Kepha. Peter is the Rock.
2007-07-23 13:00:05
·
answer #4
·
answered by Sayid Abu Khamr al-MaseeHee 2
·
1⤊
1⤋
Calling a mere mortal man "Father" is a bit odd, as though such a man were God Himself. And though we have "fathers" in Christ and Adam, these mere men do not deserve to be addressed by such a prestigious title, lest perhaps they themselves be falsely worshipped.
2007-07-23 02:34:35
·
answer #5
·
answered by w2 6
·
0⤊
2⤋
Hey Sara they have the same Bible as we do ,I think, I am begining to wonder. There are alot of things that there way off base about ,and Christ is coming back to set things straight,Bless God.The Bible states also the there is one GOD of whom are all things and we in him and one Lord Jesus and all thing by him (1 timothy 2:5) you not alone in your feelings about them, but as i said ,they beleive in Jesus Christ and Jesus said that anyone that believes in him is our brother and sister.But GOD will set the record striaght
2007-07-23 02:12:38
·
answer #6
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
2⤋
If Jesus told us to call absolutely NO man father then what are we to call our mothers husband?
Catholics call priests "Father" because their our spiritual fathers. The Apostle Paul even tells Timothy to look upon him as a father and Timothy as his son. Paul was obviously speaking about spiritual fatherhood. That's what the Catholic Church believes. By no means is it subtracting to God's divine Fatherhood.
2007-07-23 02:05:33
·
answer #7
·
answered by stpolycarp77 6
·
5⤊
3⤋
Because they are not followers of Christ.
They directly disobey the commandments of Christs.
Not only that you mentioned, but also idolatry as well.
Remember, Catholicism is NOT christianity.
The real christians are those who follow and obey Christ's words.
John 8:31
"Then Jesus said to those Jews who believed Him, “If you abide in My word, you are My disciples indeed."
For more information, visit
http://esoriano.wordpress.com
http://www.theoldpath.tv
http://www.truthcaster.com
2007-07-23 05:45:45
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
3⤋
Why do you feel it necessary to bash another religion that you have no interest in? If my church pushed me to discredit another religion, I would question why they were so nervous about others' beliefs.
By the way, I call the Dalai Lama, His Holiness and I really don't care what you think about that either. Now I have to go call my father!
2007-07-23 02:07:43
·
answer #9
·
answered by Pangloss (Ancora Imparo) AFA 7
·
3⤊
3⤋
Yes, Sara, for once you have it right. And Jesus knew that the Catholic church would worship Mary, his mother, so he never called her "Mother" in scripture:
Joh 19:26 When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold, thy son!
Joh 2:4 And Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come.
The Catholic Church is a Christian Church, but there is Heresy among the Leadership and some teachings.
Peter wasn't the first Pope.
Mat 16:18 And I also say unto thee, that thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of Hades shall not prevail against it.
This scripture, used by Catholic Hierarchy to demonstrate that Peter was the first Pope, was a PUN by Jesus. What he was ACTUALLY SAYING, translated, is "Peter, you are a pebble, and upon this boulder (refering to himself) I will build....
2007-07-23 02:03:54
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
4⤊
4⤋