Jesus said "I am the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end."
Why did he use the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet, when He wasn't Greek? Why didn't He use Hebrew?
2007-07-21 12:04:33 · 14 answers · asked by mrscjr 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Since most of the New Testament was written in Greek it would seem natural that those would be the letters used. Jesus could read and write in Hebrew (that is show when He went into the Synagogue to read a scroll.) It was Not the language that you could call His mother tongue. That was Amerimek. Parts of the NT was in that language but most of it was recorded in Greek... Jim
2007-07-21 12:23:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
He didn't. That quote is from the "Apocalypse," the author(s) of which wrote in Greek. In Hebrew it would be "aleph" and "tau." In fact, the name "Jesus" itself is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew "Yeheshua."
Anyway, the earliest codices of the Apocalypse don't even contain this phrase; it's probably a later interpolation.
2007-07-21 12:09:29 · answer #2 · answered by jonjon418 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He is the beginning and the end of this present age. He may have spoke hebrew but the people who wrote those books wrote and spoke greek.
2007-07-21 12:08:19 · answer #3 · answered by Emperor Insania Says Bye! 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because all of the dying-and-rising saviour gods before him did so, and he was just continuing the tradition.
The NT was written in Greek, whereas Jesus spoke Aramaic. None of the gospel authors (whoever they were) were Jewish, as is evidenced by the fact that they garbled the Jewish scriptures, knew little of the geography of Israel, and didn't know what the Jews were expecting in a messiah.
2007-07-21 12:09:23 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
While Jesus Christ is referred to in the previous verse as “coming with the clouds,” the words of Revelation 1:8 and the surrounding verses show that he could not be “the Alpha and the Omega.” In the Scriptures, only the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ is spoken of as “the Lord God” and as the “Almighty.” Jesus Christ even refers to his Father as “my God.” (John 20:17; Rev. 3:12) According to Revelation 1:1, the revelation was given to Jesus Christ by God. Hence, we should expect the words of the Almighty God to be quoted in the account. The first reference to “the Alpha and the Omega” is manifestly an example of this. Moreover, in the very next verse, the writer of the book of Revelation, the apostle John, says: “I . . . came to be in the isle that is called Patmos for speaking about God and bearing witness to Jesus.” (Rev. 1:9) This provides additional confirmation that John understood God to be the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ.
2007-07-21 12:07:35 · answer #5 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
He was the Last Adam. The first Adam, created by Almighty God (Jesus) rebelled against the Creator, thus bringing Sin into the Perfect World. Ultimately, by His shed blood, God The Father (Jesus) bore it upon himself to suffer His Only Begotten Son (Jesus) as the lasting atonement for the forgiveness of our sin.
2007-07-21 12:21:17 · answer #6 · answered by jon f 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
I've read something before that suggests Jesus was possibly Adam brought back to life.
2007-07-21 12:13:02 · answer #7 · answered by Sean 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It wasn't Jesus who made that statement. It was his father Jehovah / God, our creator who made it.
As to the language he used, why worry about trivialities?
2007-07-21 13:44:02 · answer #8 · answered by Wisdom 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
because Jesus Christ is True GOD and True Man in one divine person! THe apostle John wrote the book of Revelation in Greek, because it was the main language of Israel and nearby areas at that time. God bless.
2007-07-21 12:07:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 4⤋
begining and end of that age
hmmm age before aquarius
and same reason he calls himself christ and morning star.
lol morning star is such a give away...
2007-07-21 12:08:15 · answer #10 · answered by ~I wish you could smile~ 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋