English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

And was Mary the Immaculate Conception?

When forty years of age, Joseph married a woman called Melcha or Escha by some, Salome by others; they lived forty-nine years together and had six children, two daughters and four sons, the youngest of whom was James (the Less, "the Lord's brother"). A year after his wife's death, as the priests announced through Judea that they wished to find in the tribe of Juda a respectable man to espouse Mary, then twelve to fourteen years of age. Joseph, who was at the time ninety years old, went up to Jerusalem among the candidates; a miracle manifested the choice God had made of Joseph, and two years later the Annunciation took place.

Now as we can see those children mentioned in the bible that were Jesus's brothers and sisters were His half brothers and sisters. Can someone tell me what other children Mary had besides Jesus.?

Immaculate conception
What is the Immaculate Conception? It is an even more incredible miracle.

2007-07-21 11:37:12 · 19 answers · asked by tebone0315 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Mary, the special woman who is going to give birth to Jesus, is conceived in Her mother’s womb without the stain of Original Sin.

How do we inherit Original Sin — the sin of Adam and Eve who disobeyed the Lord? We get it through our parents’ DNA! It's in our blood! And Original Sin is nothing more than the disobedient nature of mankind (Romans 5:19). We have been given free will and we can choose to do things we know God does not like or want us to do.
The Scriptures — the consistent original Scriptures — are very clear as to what God’s Strength said to Mary: “HAIL, FULL OF GRACE, THE LORD IS WITH THEE!”

W e ARE NOT full of God’s grace. We are sinners. But if you were full of God’s grace, what does that mean? Does that mean you have sin in you?
With Mary, God granted — out of His own good pleasure — all of His grace to Mary.

Now why would He do this? In fact, who else in the Bible, besides Mary, was ever declared to be full of God’s grace? The answer: no one! Only Mary was

2007-07-21 11:39:52 · update #1

Only Mary was declared “full of grace.”

So we need to look at the Old Covenant to understand why the Lord HAD to do this to Mary!

Do you remember the Ark of the Covenant? What was in the Ark? The 10 Commandments. Are not the 10 Commandments the Word of the Lord? What happened to people who in sinfulness touched the Ark of the Covenant with the Word of God in it? They died!

1
Now it is impossible to be anything but reasonable in reviewing this fact and applying it to the New Covenant. Is Jesus the Word of God? Is Jesus sinless and holy? Who is going to carry Jesus in Her womb?

If Mary has sin in Her, what will happen when God infuses His Holy Spirit in Her and the Word of God takes residence in Her womb? Wouldn’t She be consumed like those who touched the Ark of the Covenant?

Since Mary is going to carry the Word of God within Her for nine months as the New Ark of the Covenant, She CANNOT have sin within Her or She will be consumed by the Holy Spirit!

2007-07-21 11:41:11 · update #2

In addition, in order for Jesus NOT to inherit Original Sin, God stopped this generational process in Mary so that the Blood Jesus receives from Her is PURE and untainted with sin.

2007-07-21 11:42:05 · update #3

19 answers

There is absolutely no evidence that Jesus had siblings or that St. Mary had other children. the evidence points to the fact that she had no other children. At the cross Jesus said to St. John. "behold your mother", He then said to St. Mary, "behold your son". If St. Mary was the mother of other sons it would have been those sons who would have been entrusted with her care instead of St. John.

In Christ
Fr. Joseph

2007-07-21 12:02:04 · answer #1 · answered by cristoiglesia 7 · 3 1

If she was like the ark of the covenant and had to be holy and full of grace or the word of God would have destroyed her, then how about the sinners? If sinners are not holy and full of grace, then they are full of sin, so sin and destruction would not destroy them!? I thought that was why Jesus died for mankind... to make them safe in His righteousness... to be holy and full of grace so that they can be reunited with God.

Also, I think it is a greater miracle when the angel told Mary all about Jesus who would be born to her before she physically concieved Jesus. It was not only a prophesy of old, this prophesy was revealed to Mary herself as she was the one that would make it possible for the prophesy to unfold. If she only had Jesus without the angel telling her it would be of the Holy Spirit, she would not know for sure what had happened and there would be no story to support her claim about how Jesus came to be.

I belive Mary was a perpetual virgin, but it also must be noted that I do not think it matters whether or not she was, nor does it matter whether or not she had other children. Children are the greatest of blessings from the Lord and should not be despised... they are crowns of honor.

2007-07-22 06:10:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

According to the Holy Spirit we talk to, the Blessed Virgin Mary had only one child—and that is Jesus. Last April 2007, I asked the Holy Spirit about the brothers of Jesus named in the Bible, like James, Joses, Judah and Simon plus sisters (Mark 6:3). He said that they were not children of Mary nor were they children of Joseph. We were surprised at the answer. He did not elaborate nor anyone asked further questions.

Mark 6:3 states: “Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Judah, and Simon? And are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.” Why were they offended at Him? Did they not believe in Jesus?

Jesus said in the next verse: “A prophet is not without honor, but in his own country, and among his own kin, and in his own house.” “In his own house” means within His household. This may mean that those people did not believe in Jesus.

That is why while Jesus was on the cross, He said to His mother in John 19:26: “Woman, behold thy son!” and He entrusted her to His beloved disciple to care for His mother as stated in the next verse, number 27, to wit: “Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.”

Why was the Blessed Virgin Mary entrusted to the disciple and not to those supposed brothers and sisters mentioned in Mark 6:3? Firstly, those people were not really her children. Secondly, they did not believe in Jesus. Thirdly, the Blessed Virgin Mother was committed to continue the work of her son Jesus to save mankind from sin, and it was natural for her to work with him. Do you know the name of this disciple? You will be surprised.

What is the Immaculate Conception? It is a doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church that Jesus was conceived by the Virgin Mary without the stain of original sin. How can we get the original sin? The Holy Spirit told us that when a man and a woman had sexual intercourse and beget an offspring, the offspring has the stain of the original sin. This sin can be removed by baptism. That is why the Holy Spirit recommends that the child must be baptized on his eighth day to remove this stain of original sin.

Jesus was conceived by a virgin fathered by the Holy Spirit. There was no sexual intercourse that happened. Therefore, Jesus did not have the original sin.

Why was Jesus circumcised and named on his eighth day if He did not have the original sin? The Holy Spirit told us that Jesus was setting an example so that a child should be baptized immediately on his eighth day to remove this original sin.

2007-07-22 03:29:22 · answer #3 · answered by Peace Crusader 5 · 0 0

Where did you come by all this so-called information? It's not in the Bible so it has to be the lies of men with special thougt and purpose other than that of God's since God did not disclose this information, it is not God inspired. Jesus' half brothers and sisters were born of Mary as Joseph and Mary had intercourse. The Bible says that the man passes on sin, since God is the Father of Jesus he was born without sin. God protected Jesus while in the womb.

2007-07-21 11:45:58 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

People contnue to debate this, a matter that was always so well known and so well understood by the Church that scripture hardly mentions it.

Mary had no children other than Jesus Christ.

Mary was indeed the Ark of the New Covenant, graced and sanctified by God more than any other creature, on earth or in heaven.

A sacred vessel, once dedicated to God, may not be used for any other purpose.

2007-07-21 12:18:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

Mary is a perpetual Virgin. She had no relations with Joseph. Her only child was Jesus. She was Immaculately Conceived because the merits of Jesus suffering and death were applied to her at her conception.

2007-07-21 12:29:27 · answer #6 · answered by Midge 7 · 2 2

Hello, Tebone:

Tradition tells us different stories; in fact, the book of Mary, a fabrications, tells of Mary living in the temple from childhood like Samuel did.

Mary was blessed above all others, and the Bible indicates that she did not have any more children, only the step-sons of Joseph.

It was a sin to abandon a parent (5th commandment), and children were caretakers of them when they needed it.

Of Mary, it seems there was no one with that legal responsibility, So Jesus assigned someone before he died. See John 19:26
"When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!
19:27 "Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own [home]."

Concerning the immaculate conception, let me say the following:

It was not important to the first century church--the Bible does not even record them inquiring of Mary when they chose a replacement for Judas.

It was several hundred years later in the fifth century that The First Council of Ephesus debated if Mary was the mother of God. They decided yes.

The next council of Ephesus then had to decide if Jesus was man or God.

Then they had to define Jesus human/god nature. One Bishop who disagreed with the exact wording was beaten on the spot, dragged from the council meeting and thrown in jail. After three days they decided to send the "heretic" into exile--he died from his injuries a couple days later.

So you see, Tebone, the questions you are asking have been argued more than the Pharisees and Sadusees, who Jesus said would not enter the Kingdom.

My feelings are that the Roman Church has adopted tenants of spiritualism by communicating with Mary's spirit. Satan, who deceived the angels of heaven has greater success with unsuspecting humans.

My suggestion is to read your Bible through and through in an attitude of prayer. Then, when you come to the only part that says you can not understand it until the end-of-the-days, read: http://abiblecode.tripod.com. It unlocks the Bible code and answers many of your questions.

Blessings and AGAPE, Balaam

2007-07-21 12:05:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

The Holy Spirit lives inside believers, and yet we are not consumed.

The Bible teaches of the Virgin birth but not of the immaculate conception. Mary was a human being like all the rest of us.

2007-07-21 11:48:53 · answer #8 · answered by happygirl 6 · 3 1

Yes, she had other children, 3 other sons and at least 2 daughters. No, she was not born without sin. That was the place of Jesus, the Son of God, alone. She needed the salvation only He could provide, just as every other human being has.

2007-07-21 15:39:12 · answer #9 · answered by †Lawrence R† 6 · 1 2

The Immaculate conception is when Mary was conceived. I don't know that she had any other childern. One son of God was plenty I'm sure.

2007-07-21 11:42:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

fedest.com, questions and answers