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HELP out there!! Okay, my question is: if a homeowner in CA goes into foreclosure with a mortgage balance of 500k, bought the place say 2 years back for 600k, and the place goes to auction and gets only 400k, does the homeowner get taxed for the shortage, as he would if a lender was to forgive him a debt of that same amount? I find myself running into more and more foreclosures, and This is a scenario that is bound to happen to any number of my clients/prospects any day now. Thanks in advance for you input.

2007-07-20 14:31:01 · 1 answers · asked by J k 3 in Business & Finance Taxes United States

1 answers

Unfortunately, yes, unless he was insolvent at the time, which is often the case when someone's home is foreclosed.

2007-07-20 14:53:56 · answer #1 · answered by Judy 7 · 0 0

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