In the new testament that it is a sin to sodomise and be homosexuals?
Now, remember I said new testament. I want books chapters and verses. I want literal words saying "it is a sin to sodomize" or "it is agaisnt God to lie with another man"...etc.
Not something that can be interpreted as homosexuality or sodomy...
I am wondering, because most Christians quote Leviticus which doesn't apply to us. Why? Because of the new covenant being formed by Jesus and the old one(Old Testament or Laws of Leviticus) was thrown out. I just want to be able to give scriptural support to our beliefs when someone else askes this.
2007-07-19
18:23:44
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17 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Thanks royal racer
2007-07-19
18:29:16 ·
update #1
panglosswasright, Adam and Eve were OLD testament...sorry.
Also, I am not gay, just wondering because I could not find it myself and then when "Christians" throw leviticus at people, it doesn't make sense because Christians follow the words of Christ...
2007-07-19
18:35:22 ·
update #2
When I said Sodomize and Sodomy, I didn't mean the city Sodom...sorry.
2007-07-19
18:37:15 ·
update #3
Interestingly, Jesus was against adultery, but he never said a word against homosexuality. Therefore since many christians do adultery (ie they divorce for unacceptable reasons according Jesus), then it seems they are going to hell and gays are going heaven. Nice?
2007-07-19 18:31:34
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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In addition to Romans chapter 1, I Cor. chapter 6, and the book of Jude -- mentioned by everyone else -- note that Jesus defines marriage as being between a male and a female in Matthew chapter 19 and said that this was God's original intent for sex. Jesus also said that anyone who could not handle being married should become celibate (literally, a "eunuch"). That seems rather clear. Everywhere sex and marriage is discussed in the New Testament (like 1 Cor. 7), the assumpt is that it is between a male and a female since this is "normal". Note that the New Testament does not expressly state that having sex with animals is wrong either, but it is implied -- since Jesus and the apostles determined that the sexual laws of the Old Testament still applied to Christians under the NT (Mark 7:14-23; Acts 15; Gal. 5).
2007-07-20 12:41:49
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answer #2
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answered by Randy G 7
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read Romans chapters 1-3. you'll find verses in there. Read New Testament on your own and you will find refences, maybe not in the words that you put t, but it is there. Somewhere it is written by Paul that no.....liars, drunkards, etc and homosexuals will enter the kingdom. Note please: homosexuality is a sin like any other: pride, jealously, selfishness, etc.
All sin is basically disobedience to God.
Who says Leviticus does not apply to us? Do we then serve a different God from the One in the Old Testament? Get your facts straight, bru!
2007-07-20 01:34:00
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answer #3
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answered by godshandmaiden 4
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A note on what nice girl quoted. The "male prostitutes" which Paul referred to were actually boys. Their clients were men. This is the homosexuality that Paul was condemning there in Corinth.
Then he goes on to say, "some of you were like that" but now are saved. If the men of Corinth can be forgiven by God after patronizing boy prostitutes, then you know it's not true that gays are all condemned without forgiveness.
2007-07-20 01:41:56
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answer #4
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answered by out of the grey 4
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The most common location cited, if we grant your premises (more in a moment), is in the Book of Romans, Chapter 1. There, in speaking about God's holy wrath against the whole Gentile world (Paul takes on the Jews in Chapter 2, and summarizes the case against ALL--Jew AND Gentile--in Chapter 3, esp. v. 23).
At verse 18 his lengthy argument begins. Everyone who sins is without excuse, because God has made Himself known in the Creation itself. People sin, not because they don't KNOW God, but because they don't LIKE Him!
Consequently, God GAVE THEM OVER to depraved minds, minds that no longer function in a way that could please God (see Romans 8:7). The first, chief manifestation of God's having handed someone over to lunacy/depravity is in sexual impurity, The Bible says that God does this AS A JUDGMENT. Note carefully: the depravities men practice not only LEAD to judgment but are themselves judgments. It is particularly in pagan religions that such sexual depravity is EMBRACED. Anyone can sin, Christians included. But the real danger is that place where SIN is called GOOD. Woe unto him that calls evil good, God says.
For the sin of forsaking God, and for refusing to repent after the judgment of depravity, God strengthens their captivity to depravity. It is here that you will find the verses you are looking for: 1:26-27. It is not a pretty picture, especially when you consider how much like that picture our culture has come to look.
The Chapter concludes with an amazing cascade of sins, evidences of people being without hope and without God in the world (compare Ephesians 2). Interestingly, Paul says that APPROVING of such sins is really WORSE than DOING them! Why? Because as long as you know something is a sin, there is hope that you might come to your senses. But if you take a sinful behavior and try to convince others that it is not sinful at all, but equally pleasing to God, or just as neutral, as any other approved behavior, then you have cut off hope. And for those who cut off the hope of others, God reserves a special hell.
Now to your premise: I understand that you were taught that the "old covenant" --which, you were taught, meant the Old Testament-- was thrown out. That teaching is terribly wrong and as mischievous and ill-conceived as any heresy. JESUS said, "DO NOT THINK I HAVE COME TO ABOLISH THE LAW..." yet you say that that is exactly what He did come for. Who whould we believe? Think about it. If you need books to help you grow in your appreciation for the UNITY of the Bible, I'd be happy to recommend some.
Yours and His,
Abraham Kuyper, Jr.
2007-07-20 02:00:04
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answer #5
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answered by abraham.kuyper 1
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The Bible quotes Jesus, I think four times, using the city of Sodom as a warning to those who practice unrighteousness. Sodom is also use in other New Testament books:
Matthew 10:15
I tell you the truth, it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town.
Matthew 11:23
And you, Capernaum, will you be lifted up to the skies? No, you will go down to the depths. If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Sodom, it would have remained to this day.
Matthew 11:24
But I tell you that it will be more bearable for Sodom on the day of judgment than for you."
Luke 10:12
I tell you, it will be more bearable on that day for Sodom than for that town.
Luke 17:29
But the day Lot left Sodom, fire and sulfur rained down from heaven and destroyed them all.
Romans 9:29
It is just as Isaiah said previously: "Unless the Lord Almighty had left us descendants, we would have become like Sodom, we would have been like Gomorrah."
2 Peter 2:6
if he condemned the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah by burning them to ashes, and made them an example of what is going to happen to the ungodly;
Jude 1:7
In a similar way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion. They serve as an example of those who suffer the punishment of eternal fire.
2007-07-20 01:33:21
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answer #6
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answered by ignoramus_the_great 7
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Rom 1:24 Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to the dishonoring of their bodies among themselves,
Rom 1:25 because they exchanged the truth about God for a lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever! Amen.
Rom 1:26 For this reason God gave them up to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged natural relations for those that are contrary to nature;
Rom 1:27 and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in themselves the due penalty for their error.
Rom 1:28 And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, God gave them up to a debased mind to do what ought not to be done.
1Co 6:9 Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality,
2007-07-20 01:30:01
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answer #7
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answered by ? 5
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1Corinthians 6:9-11
"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters nor adulterers, nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor slanderers, nor swindlers will inherit the Kingdom of God. And that is what some of you were . But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God."
2007-07-20 01:34:27
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answer #8
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answered by Consuming Fire 7
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Romans,,1:24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
1:25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another *; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
"well, you asked"
2007-07-20 01:27:39
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answer #9
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answered by Royal Racer Hell=Grave © 7
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Jesus never repealed what was declared a sin in the OT. He specifically said that anyone teaching to disobey the Law would be called the least in heaven. What Jesus did was fulfill the law. There's a big difference.
You will find your answer in Romans 1 and in 1Corinthians. Also in Revelation 21-22.
2007-07-20 01:29:29
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answer #10
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answered by TEK 4
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1 Corinthians 6: 9.
2007-07-20 01:29:17
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answer #11
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answered by conundrum 7
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