so where exactly in the bible does it say homosexuality is wrong?

Question

I was just merely curious

I don't believe it is wrong at all.

Answer 1

What does it matter? The Bible is an ancient book written by superstitious people who thought that treating women as property, slavery, and killing others just because they followed a different superstition were all considered good. Notice that they said nothing against things we, today, think of as wrong, like child abuse.

It is pretty poor as a moral guide, so I wouldn't take any advice it has, if any, on the morality of homosexuality.

Answer 2

Sigh. Here we go again.

The most notorious passages are Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13, in which it's said that if a man lieth with a man as he doth with a woman, the two have committed an abomination and shall be put to death. Of course, the same book also adjures parents to put their disobedient children to death (Leviticus 20:9), etc. Leviticus on the whole is a work of the most barbaric savagery, as is much of the "Old Testament."

"Christians" are always saying that the "Good News" of Jesus means we're no longer bound by Mosaic Law; yet they can't resist yanking Leviticus out of the hat every time the subject of homosexuality is breached.

As for the "New Testament," we have a few statements of "Paul," such as Romans 1:26-27, which speaks of "men (who) also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another." But the section of Romans in which this statement appears is widely believed by scholars to be a late interpolation in the original text. There are also scattered statements in the letters to Timothy and the Corinthians, but these letters are also generally regarded to have been written by an anonymous author who used Paul's name. Not that it matters much - Paul himself was quite evidently a morbid sexual neurotic, and only "Christians" would put much stock in anything he had to say on the topic.

In the final analysis, yes, it's true that there ARE passages in the Bible that condemn homosexuality, and I'm not of the camp that attempts to discredit these passages as "mistranslations" or whatever. The savage who wrote Leviticus was quite clearly condemning homosexuality, as was pseudo-Paul, and I don't see the point in trying to dispute that. The more important question is, why should anybody care what the Bible has to say about it? The injunctions against homosexuality were necessary to a tribe of nomads wandering through the desert - non-procreative sex was indeed a social crime. Today there are 6 billion people in the world! Times have changed, but "Christians" are required to believe that the Bible enshrines a fixed standard of morality good for all humans in all circumstances forever. Needless to say, they're complete hypocrites, cherry-picking the anti-homo passages while ignoring or dismissing the texts that might actually apply to themselves.

Answer 3

The Bible consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). Romans 1:26-27 teaches specifically that homosexuality is a result of denying and disobeying God. When a person continues in sin and disbelief, the Bible tells us that God “gives them over” to even more wicked and depraved sin in order to show them the futility and hopelessness of life apart from God. 1 Corinthians 6:9 proclaims that homosexual “offenders” will not inherit the kingdom of God.

Answer 4

Leviticus 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.

Romans 1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

edit:

to Zero Cool,

You should include everything that pertains when you are saying what the bible says:

Ezekiel 16:48 As I live, saith the Lord GOD, Sodom thy sister hath not done, she nor her daughters, as thou hast done, thou and thy daughters.
49 Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy.
50 And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good.

Where does it say something different about the word abomination as opposed to Leviticus 18?

The church has accepted that the versions of the bible that have been produced in modern times as truthful, but they have been produced, not by God's will, but by the will of those who want to pervert the church. They are abominations.

edit:

to JonJon,

The gospel isn't that we are no longer bound by the Mosaic Law. That is "another gospel."

Christians don't believe that they don't need to obey God. The good news of the gospel is that we are reconciled to God through the blood of the Lamb of God which taketh away the sin of the world.

We still have to do God's will, or we are doing our own will and using the liberty wherein we were set free as lasciviousness. That is the same as having dead faith, which is no faith at all, and we will be appointed our portion with the hypocrits if we don't repent and believe the true gospel.

Answer 5

I wasn't going to add anything because I thought they where pretty good answers but to rebut "jonjon"Before Jesus we had to sacrifice animals for forgiveness because of the importance that blood has. Jesus came and was the ultimate sacrifice so 1. we wouldn't have to sacrifice anymore, but rather we could ask for forgiveness THROUGH him and so likewise there no longer was a "put them to death and their blood is on them" type of thing. Also the bible talks about homosexuality in the new testament in Romans 1:26 and 27

" 26For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."


God Bless

Answer 6

No where.

The passages in Leviticus (18:22 and 20:13), understood IN THE CONTEXT of the time and place, are not an admonishment against loving sexual relationships between people of the same sex but instead against sex as a form of domination and control. Besides, these passages are part of the Holiness Code which is not binding to modern day Christians (or anyone else for that matter).

The story of Sodom and Gomorrah was a warning against rape, inhospitality and xenophobia. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshiping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned. If Jude 1:7 describes anything about the sexual immorality and perversion in Sodom and Gomorrah, it's describing RAPE.

1 Corinthians 6:9 was a mistranslation of the word "malakee". It's used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender. 1 Timothy 1:9-10? Misinterpretation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.

The words "physin" and "paraphysin" in Romans 1:26-27 have also been mistranslated. Contrary to popular belief, the word "paraphysin" does not mean "to go against the laws of nature", but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word "paraphysin" is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it implies that it would be unnatural for heterosexuals to live as homosexuals and for homosexuals to live as heterosexuals.

Answer 7

Levititcus 18:22 "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable."

Romans 1:26-27 "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion."

Answer 8

Leviticus 18:22 and Romans 1:7 say it all! They speak of how it is an abomination unto God and that their bodies "reap the recompense" or get "paid back" for this action.

Answer 9

Here's just a few....

Leviticus 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.

Leviticus 18:29 For whosoever shall commit any of these abominations, even the souls that commit them shall be cut off from among their people.

Leviticus 20:13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.

Romans 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:

Romans 1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

Romans 1:32 Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them.

1 Corinthians 6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,

1 Corinthians 6:10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.

1 Corinthians 6:11 And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.

1 Timothy 1:8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;

1 Timothy 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

1 Timothy 1:10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

Answer 10

Romans 1:27
In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.

Generally when scripture speaks of a perversion it is not a good thing.