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1 Corinthians 7:3-6 says, "Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband. The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband: and likewise also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife.

Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency. But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment."

2007-07-18 19:08:11 · 11 answers · asked by Dakine 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

Oh , so that was god's eyes I saw looking through the window . I thought it was crony of John Ashcroft...

2007-07-18 19:19:03 · answer #1 · answered by conx-the-dots 5 · 0 1

Sex is actually the consummation of the marriage. The actual covenant is made through the exchanging of the vows before God and man. The spilling of the virgin's blood is a sort of sealing of the covanent. Its a very precious thing and its sad that the matter of virginity has been scoffed at by the world and its satanic system.

In the eyes of the world it is a different matter. If a marriage is not consummated then that is grounds to annul the union.

These verses in Corinthians are a way for marriages under God to be kept. I do not think that the Lord even has to tell us to consummate our marriage vows through the union of the couple.

The lines of communication has to remain open in this aspect of the couple's life. Even if one needs a time to fast and pray and is allowed to give him or herself to be before God for a particular time. Then the brother or sister should keep the marriage bed sanctified and under the Lord's covering to maintain the marriage by coming together again.
Satan is always attacking couples through the marriage bed.

May we be so watchful and careful as to what we allow behind closed doors. The Doors may be closed to others but they are never closed to the Lord.

2007-07-18 19:37:39 · answer #2 · answered by Broken Alabaster Flask 6 · 0 0

In the time of Jesus (and before) this was answered in Jewish practice. Only an "engagement", called betrothal then, was necessary to be binding. People who were promised to each other had to obtain a "divorce" to break the engagement. Remember when Joseph was going to "quietly divorce" Mary when they were only engaged at the time. Guess in our day words don't mean as much as they use to, huh?

2007-07-18 19:26:24 · answer #3 · answered by Weberly 2 · 1 0

I've heard it said both ways by Christians. I'm not sure how I feel, but I'd like to think that it wasn't binding until you consummated the marriage, just as a last second escape pod if you found out something horrible. I don't know!

2007-07-18 19:13:23 · answer #4 · answered by Dan in Real Life 6 · 1 1

Absent deceit or subterfuge, a marriage is binding when the man and the women consent, and give themselves to one another in love, hopefully, while in the presence of God.

2007-07-18 20:49:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

and who wrote that? a woman hating, industrial sized dumbas* whose writings are used to justify subjugating women to second class status. sex is not the reason you seem to think it is. it is about who will keep control over the church, a man, or a woman.

2007-07-18 19:17:56 · answer #6 · answered by de bossy one 6 · 0 1

Adultry,lust,fornication all are sin.
Husbands and wives are to take care of each others physical needs.

2007-07-18 19:34:09 · answer #7 · answered by robert p 7 · 1 0

no - where does the bible say that? the marriage is binding once the vows are said and both people agree.

2007-07-18 19:11:23 · answer #8 · answered by Rising Star 4 · 1 1

No, of course not.

2007-07-18 19:12:15 · answer #9 · answered by pinkeee 3 · 1 1

Try BEFORE you buy.

2007-07-18 19:10:01 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 6

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