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I posted this question a few days ago in languages, and got only one answer. Beings the Bible was origanally written in Hebrew and Aramaic, I guess it would be better asked here.

2007-07-18 14:49:33 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Most of this stuff I already knew. I was looking for things like the make-up of words between the two. I know also that the two languages use the same letters; I just wanted to know how you would tell the difference if you were to read them the way the Bible was originally written.

2007-07-19 11:47:02 · update #1

10 answers

The key phonetic differences are that Aramaic had no vocalised pharyngeal voiced fricative, it was silent, so the word 'nganga' is for example replaced with 'ilan', as 'nganga' would be silent in Aramaic.

A second common occurence is the substitution of d for sh.

Also, the use of 'in' for the maculine plural, not 'im'

The other outstanding difference, is that in Aramaic syllable length remains constant, in Hebrew syllable/vowel length is altered when a noun is declined or a verb is conjugated.

There are others, these are just a few that strike me offhand.

2007-07-19 13:19:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The Old Testament was originally written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Syriac.

The New Testament is in Greek with a couple of Aramaic words. Some of the New Testament may also have been penned in Hebrew/Aramaic for Hebrew/Aramaic speaking Christians but these have been lost.

Aramaic

Portions of Ezra and Daniel are in Aramaic.

Syriac

Apocalypse of Baruch, an apocryphal book is Syriac.
One Chapter about the leaving of Babylonian captivity is also Syriac.
2 Kings 18 or 24 is in Syriac.

The rest of the Old Testament is in Hebrew.

There are Aramaic "Targums" which are paraphrases of the original Hebrew.

Aramaic became the common language and replaced Hebrew in many places. So the "Targums" were written by Hebrew scholars of the time.

New Testament----

Mark 15:34 is Aramaic so is Matthew 27:46.

Jesus uses Abba which means Dad or Daddy when he prayed also but this is the only provable Aramaic in the New Testament.

There are many folks that argue that the New Testament books were originally Aramaic and all the Greek versions came from Aramaic.

There are not any Aramaic versions from then but many Greek manuscripts around so decide this for yourself.


Hebrew, Syriac, Aramaic all are related in origin like described above.
Greek is another language.

2007-07-18 17:37:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

The old testomony became as quickly as in the beginning up written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Syriac. the hot testomony is in Greek with some Aramaic words. assorted the hot testomony would even have been penned in Hebrew/Aramaic for Hebrew/Aramaic conversing Christians notwithstanding those have been lost. Aramaic parts of Ezra and Daniel are in Aramaic. Syriac Apocalypse of Baruch, an apocryphal e-e book is Syriac. One bankruptcy approximately the leaving of Babylonian captivity could be Syriac. 2 Kings 18 or 24 is in Syriac. The entertainment of the old testomony is in Hebrew. There are Aramaic "Targums" that are paraphrases of the time-honored Hebrew. Aramaic grew to alter into the traditional language and adjusted Hebrew in lots of places. So the "Targums" have been written with the help of technique of Hebrew pupils of the time. New testomony---- Mark 15:34 is Aramaic so is Matthew 27:40 six. Jesus makes use of Abba because of this Dad or Daddy whilst he prayed additionally notwithstanding this is the single provable Aramaic in the hot testomony. there are various persons that argue that the hot testomony books have been in the beginning up Aramaic and the entire Greek fashions have been given right here from Aramaic. There are no Aramaic fashions from then notwithstanding many Greek manuscripts around so make a selection this for your self. Hebrew, Syriac, Aramaic all are comparable in beginning place like defined above. Greek is one greater language.

2016-09-30 07:08:14 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

some of these responses are partially right. Hebrew is the language of the jews and aramaic is the language of arabs. But here is the part that ive read from certain responses that are false. The bible was indeed written in hebrew, greek, and latin as some tried to say it was written only in greek, and hebrew.

2007-07-18 15:26:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

The Bible was written in Hebrew, not in Aramaic.
Aramaic, like Hebrew, is a Northwest Semitic language, and the two share many features. From the seventh century BCE, Aramaic became the lingua franca of the Middle East. It became the language of diplomacy and trade, but was not used by the Hebrew populace at this early date. As described in 2 Kings 18:26, Hezekiah, king of Judah, demands to negotiate with Assyrian ambassadors in Aramaic rather than Hebrew so that the common people would not understand. During the sixth century BCE, the Babylonian captivity brought the working language of Mesopotamia much more into their daily life of ordinary Jews. Around 500 BCE, Darius I of Persia proclaimed[citation needed] that Aramaic would be the official language for the western half of his empire, and the Eastern Aramaic dialect of Babylon became the official standard. Documentary evidence shows the gradual shift from Hebrew to Aramaic:

1. Hebrew used as first language and in society, other, similar Canaanite languages known and understood.
2. Aramaic is used in international diplomacy and foreign trade.
3. Aramaic is used for communication between subjects and the imperial administration.
4. Aramaic gradually becomes the language of outer life (in the marketplace for example).
5. Aramaic gradually replaces Hebrew in the home, and the latter is used only in religious activity.

These phases took place over a fairly protracted period, and the rate of change varied depending on the place and social class in question: the use of one or other language was likely a social, political and religious barometer. The conquest of the Middle East by Alexander the Great in 331 BCE overturned centuries of Mesopotamian dominance, and led to the ascendancy of Greek. It became the dominant language throughout the Seleucid Empire, but significant pockets of Aramaic-speaking resistance continued. Judaea was one of the areas where Aramaic remained dominant, and its use remained among Babylonian Jews as well. The destruction of Persian power, and its replacement with Greek rule sped the final decline of Hebrew to the margins of Jewish society. Writing from the Seleucid and Hasmonaean periods show the complete supersession of Aramaic as the language of the Jewish people. In contrast, Hebrew was the holy tongue. The early witness to this period of change is the Biblical Aramaic of the books of Daniel and Ezra. This language shows a number of Hebrew features have been taken into Jewish Aramaic: the letter He is often used instead of Aleph to mark a word-final long a vowel and the prefix of the causative verbal stem, and the masculine plural ending -īm often replaces -īn.

2007-07-18 15:03:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Both are considered Semantic languages.

For example English is considered a Germantic language but resembles it very little in some ways

French, Italian, and Spanish are considered Romantic languages since they are blends of Latin which the Romans spoke and the native languages.

This is the relationship between Hebrew and Aramaic.

Peace -C

2007-07-18 15:24:38 · answer #6 · answered by ander 4 · 2 1

Hebrew is the native language of the Jews. Aramaic is the native language of the Arabs.

2007-07-18 14:57:10 · answer #7 · answered by Simon Peter 5 · 0 2

See my comment to 7 to0 6.

2016-03-30 15:42:45 · answer #8 · answered by Smartassawhip 7 · 0 0

Race, for one thing. Hebrews are not Arabs.

2007-07-18 14:55:50 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aramaic

2007-07-18 14:54:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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