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ok so i was playing poker my brother he bet 10 dollars i raised him 10 (i put in 20) so there for he would have to call by putting in 20 as well right?......he said he only has to put in 10 to call
am i right.....wouldnt he have to put in 20

2007-07-18 14:31:33 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Games & Recreation Gambling

5 answers

If you raise 10, he only has to put in 10 to match your raise and both of you would have a total of 20 in the pot.

2007-07-18 14:39:46 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 1 0

You have to remember that at the end of the betting round everyone has to have put in the same amount of money to see another card (or decide the winner at the end).

Without getting into the complications of mutiple all-ins, here is your situation.

Your Brother: Bet $10
You: Called $10, Raised $10, so your total is $20
Your Brother: Unless he wants to re-raise you, he must his bet equal yours. This means he owes $10. $10 initial bet plus $10 to call your raise equals $20.

By telling him he had to put in $20 means he would have put a total of $30 in the pot and you would only have put $20. In an essence you were basically telling him to raise not call your hand.

So, just remember, each player has to put in an equal amount of money (unless they go all in but can't cover the previous bets).

Hope this helps.

2007-07-19 05:49:41 · answer #2 · answered by PAWS 5 · 0 0

He put $10 in, then you raised and put $20 in. So he would only have to put $10 more in to equal the $20 you have in.

2007-07-18 15:09:55 · answer #3 · answered by ucbmoose 2 · 1 0

If you don't know the rules, it's probably not wise to be playing poker for $20 a card!

2007-07-18 14:52:25 · answer #4 · answered by bigslick316 3 · 0 0

he bet ten so you called his ten, then you raised it ten so he has to call that ten.

2007-07-18 14:42:29 · answer #5 · answered by noelle f 2 · 1 0

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