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Did religion have anything to do with these laws being on the books?

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2007-07-18 09:38:16 · 3 answers · asked by NHBaritone 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

3 answers

Thanks for the flashback to Constitutional Law last semester. Lawrence v. Texas is the case you're thinking of, and it was decided in 2003. The Court used an Equal Protection argument, so yes, it was a federal issue. I'm not sure how many states had sodomy laws on the books when Lawerence was decided, but it was certainly more than just Texas--I'm guessing 20 or more.

Some of the justices argued that religion had nothing to do with it the bans, but it's a tenuous argument at best.

2007-07-18 09:49:56 · answer #1 · answered by Cathy 6 · 0 0

as i recall, it was in June 2003.

it was in places like Texas -- where sex with an animal isn't a crime, but gay sex was. the sodomy law was never enforced against straight people, only gay men.

of course it is due to religion!! for xians, life is all about hating different people, especially gays. the bible sure does motivate a lot of messed-up stuff... it seems to encourage a lot of hate more than anything!!

2007-07-18 16:41:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The US never criminalized homosexual activites. There is a law against sodomy, but again there is a law against oral sex too.

2007-07-18 16:42:37 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 1 1

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