Do you know the origin of the Bible and how it came to be one book?

Answer 1

Yes... The council of Nicaea argued over which books would be the basis for the united church..

Answer 2

The Hebrew version of the OT (here after called Masoretic) contained the 66 books of the bible. Alexander the Great (in Egypt) ordered that a copy of all of the world's great books be translated into Greek for his glorious library. Seventy-two Jewish scholars translated the OT into Greek -- it is called the Septuagint (from the word for 70). Included in the Septuagint were 6 other books that Protestants call Apocryphal and Catholics call Deuterocanonical.

Jesus and the apostles and the early church used the Septuagint version -- not Masoretic text -- of the Scriptures because Greek was used throughout the area. Palestine was ruled by Rome at the time of Jesus but even the Romans were enamored of all things Greek -- thus Greek was the language used. (Note: Jesus and his apostles spoke Aramaic -- now called Ancient Syriac -- for their everyday language).

Fast forward to AD 70. The Romans destroyed the Temple and Judaism basically had to re-invent itself because there is no more temple in which to offer sacrifice, which of course, they did daily.

Now it's AD 90 and leading Jews gather in council in Jamnia/Yavneh to discuss these things. It is decided to drop these 6 books from their Scriptures because they are Christocentric in nature and speak of things such as praying for the dead, purgatory and messianism. These are the books that Christians were using to prove that Jesus is the Christ. It is also at this council that a definitive break is made between Jews and the new sect within Judaism -- Christianity -- which is now seen as heretical because they worship a "mere" man.

Protestants, then, opt to use the Masoretic text for the same reason as the Jews.....because of the "Catholic" teachings in them.

At the time of King James (who was notoriously gay, by the way), there were many faulty translations of the bible. No Protestant to this day ever uses the Tynedale or Wycliffe bibles because they contained over 1,000 errors. King James then (who ruled as James VI in Scotland and James I in England) commissioned a newer translation. He DID NOT write it himself! The original edition of the KVJ written in 1611 DID contain the 6 books in dispute.

As for Jerome, he translated the bible into Latin because Latin was the "new" everyday language of the western part of the Roman empire. Remember that Constantine was the emporer in the 4th century and he divvied up the kingdom into East -- which kept the Greek -- and West -- which used Latin. It is also about this time that the Catholic liturgy (Mass) switched from being in Greek to being in Latin because that was the language of the people in the western part of the empire.

Source(s):

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.j... (read under the heading of Aquila)

Answer 3

The council of Nicia brought several dozen gospels into a room and then they locked the door so the Holy Ghost would choose which books would make up the NT.

In the morning they found some books were seperated from the rest so they burned the others and made the NT out of those.

Praise the Lard !!!!!!!!!


.

Answer 4

Yes.
http://www.jesus-is-savior.com/Bible/god_wrote_only_one_bible-fuller.htm

Answer 5

people looked at a body in the future and began using whatever words or letters they had to describe it.
like for intstance
IIII I . looked like DIO
CuT nu TiT looked like GOTT
DIOS looked like IIII I . S\ (S=S\\ in times new roman font)
CuTODD (mixed up)=BOG

four languages one person who?

Answer 6

Yes.

Answer 7

people took lots of old text and edited them to fit their ideas and theology and political needs and then cannonized them as one book.

Answer 8

Yes. Many, if not most, christians seem not to, oddly enough.

Answer 9

Yes, and its scary that people today take faith in that process