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Considering the word homosexual has only been a part of our vernacular since 1865, does the Bible really address this supposed sin?

I know you will quote Leviticus...but, we throw away the old testament as it relates to dietary laws, the fact that you shouldn't wear a cloth of more than one fiber, and that you shouldn't eat certain meats....so, it should be thrown away as it relates to homosexuality. Sodom and Gomorrah was about inhospitality and gang rape...not about committed consensual gay couples.

As far as what the Apostle Paul writes about..men lying with men, etc...do you really think the Apostle Paul knew of any committed homosexual monogamous couples?

Isn't the writings about homosexuality, more about the customs, knowledge and prejudices of the day? Wasn't it important to marry a woman to further your protection, wealth, and procreate....therefore, that's what the writers put in the Bible?

Does the Bible address a loving, monogamous homosexual couple?

2007-07-17 10:53:27 · 13 answers · asked by G.C. 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Jonathon and David were hardly monogamous...however, thanks for bringing up the fact that they were gay...most fundies will not acknowledge their love as gay love.

2007-07-17 11:02:37 · update #1

Roman armies, sex slaves, etc...

That is what the Bible addresses...

No one has yet to point out a monogamous homosexual couple of Biblical times....

hmmmm.

2007-07-17 11:07:22 · update #2

13 answers

There is no reference to a loving, monogamous homosexual couple, because there was no concept of this during biblical times. There was no concept of homosexuality being a sexual orientation. Yes, people engaged in homosexual acts, but they were typically an older man with a younger man or boy who also was somewhat of a mentor to the younger person; heterosexuals who had sex with men or women, as the mood suited them; sex between men in the context of idol worship or pagan rituals; or raping men in wars to demonstrate the victor's dominance and humiliation.

If we are going to use the Bible to justify removing the civil rights of another group, then I think those who do this owe it to us to study the supposedly anti-gay passages more thoroughly and make sure what they are saying is correct. There are many books and websites devoted to this topic and much research has been done into the time, context and alternate meanings/interpretations of the supposedly anti-gay passages of the Bible. As far as I'm concerned, if you're going to prevent me from marrying and taking care of my family, or from worshipping freely in your church, or from adopting children or from serving in the military, or from working in your religious business, you better be absolutely sure that you can stand in front of God on the day of judgment and not be questioned and condemned by God for your cruelty to your fellow man.

2007-07-17 12:03:04 · answer #1 · answered by Michael B - Prop. 8 Repealed! 7 · 0 0

Yes How about Ruth and Naomi, Jonathon and David and Jesus Christ and John! This is not given to neither endorse, condemn but rather to point out that it is a simple fact that Gay love was and has been a common thing since the begginning of time. By the way the bible has been used and misused to support a variety of positions of which is a nonsensical thing to do considering it is a realy a collection of fables, myths, as well as eyewitness accounts of events. No, the bible does not address loving monagamous homosexual couples but neither does it address heterosexual ones. Neither does it address slavery, racism, sexism and homophobia except when twisted around to do so by people seeking to justify those practices. Neither does it address enviromentalism, abortion, capitalism, or any other specific issue. The observation of it being more about customs,knowledge and a reflection of the era in which it was written and within the context of the writers prejuduces is correct. Also it is a conclusive fact that Sodom and Gomorahh was destroyed for their inhospititality to strangers, their neglect of the poor and gang rape (Be it Homosexual or Heterosexual). Regarding the holiness code we all know of its injunctions against practices that are common place but at that time was outlawed for a variety of reasons now deemed obsolete. As for the Apostle Paul what he might have observed was from the standpoint of his own prejuduces and quite possibly internalized homophobia ans or latent homosexual orientation. He observed their behavoiur from an opiunio that homosexuality is a choice and like many folks today did not understand it to be a naturally occuring part of sexual behaviour. He probably assumed that the people he saw were Heterosexuals who were indulging themselves. As for Romans it is the same thing a simple misunderstanding based on prejuduce and ignorance.

2007-07-17 11:48:47 · answer #2 · answered by chinavagabond94122 3 · 1 0

Jesus came to fulfill the law, not to do away with it. He pointed out in Matt. 5 that the law has spiritual meaning and isn't just something we do day to day. Jesus was concerned with the heart, not with keeping the letter of the law.

That being said, you and I both know that the Bible never mentions any such monogamous, gay couple. Nor would it. God does not endorse homosexuality because it is considered sexual immorality, and sexual immorality is a sin according to the Bible- Old Testament and New Testament.

The Apostle Paul wrote about men lying with men being a sin. Period. He gave no stipulations, not well... I guess if they're "committed", "monogamous", and "consenual" it's OK. Homosexuality, or men lying with men if you prefer, is not acceptable. God did not make your bodies to be together, God does not intend for you to use your bodies in that way, and most of all God wants all men (and women) to live a life of righteousness (that's right standing with God). You cannot be living a life of righteousness if you are in a homosexual lifestyle, knowing that it (men lying with men) is an act of sin.

Yes, the Bible is a historical text. However, once you've accepted Jesus as savior of your life- the Bible becomes a living and breathing applicable source of wisdom. I can't explain it to you in words you'll even understand until you experience it. The Bible is applicable to all aspects of life today and as Christians we should stick out like sore thumbs- as light in a dark world. Some of us do, some don't.

Please, don't try to make the Bible say something it doesn't. It isn't there! The Bible does NOT say it is alright for anyone to be in any kind of relationship that is not bringing God glory.
I'm sorry. Look to Jesus. Ask him because he promises you will find.

2007-07-17 11:23:34 · answer #3 · answered by Jessi J 2 · 1 2

Well it seems you know all the answers, of where it talks about gay people in the bible...no, it does not mention a gay couple by names.

A loving monogamous homosexual couple is still against our beliefs, because of what Paul said in the new testament. And if you are a fundamentalist of the old testament, they have not thrown out leviticus and some still follow all the laws....except the whole killing them(cause it's against the law). They don't eat shelfish, undercooked meat, etc.

Of course, if you throw out the monogamy thing...but the thing is Jesus, Himself, said that marriage is between a man and woman...and that's another reason they didn't mention a monogamous gay couple...because there was no such thing.

2007-07-17 10:57:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Your'e question is confused. Biblical times? Meaning what?The Roman empire,the Greek civilization,the Persian? Gay,meaning homosexual? In Greek and Roman society almost everyone practiced homosexuality. It was a social norm. To respond,I would need to see it all put a little more clearly.

2007-07-17 11:20:05 · answer #5 · answered by Galahad 7 · 0 0

I went to a very liberal college and we had a course on the Bible as Literature. The bible is all about interpretation. I do remember the Book of Ruth hints at her and Naomi being lovers. There are some gay organizations in Massachusetts that also offer literature on different interpretations. I no longer have their info, otherwise, I would pass it on. Good luck!

2007-07-17 10:58:36 · answer #6 · answered by thejenmartin 3 · 1 1

i'm an exceedingly loving and monogamous individual, and that i can not think of something yet monogamy. i like monogamy because of the fact in my opinion, genuine love is the purest and suited element that exists and human beings adventure. i understand that everybody has various emotions and needs for monogamy, yet each and every now and then it seems non-monogamous gay adult males are maximum individuals, and it makes me variety of unhappy because of the fact it makes it that extremely greater problematical to discover genuine love. i don't think of they are struggling with marriage equality inspite of the indisputable fact that, the folk against gay marriage are going to be against it no count how completely gay human beings would behave.

2016-09-30 05:18:24 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

........... did you know the homosexuality was a common practice in the Roman armies? Did you know that it was also a common practice for Roman soldiers to teach young boys the ways of the world by inducting them into the "way of men" through sex?

You need to go read history.

And the bible hates alot of things. Homosexuality included.

2007-07-17 10:57:58 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Jonathon and David

2007-07-17 10:59:01 · answer #9 · answered by Shawn B 7 · 1 1

God is not for homosexualati he love evry one but not the sin if He is for homosexualati he have to creat Adam and a nother guy not Eva.

2007-07-17 11:01:07 · answer #10 · answered by catalin_toth 2 · 1 3

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