This was funnier when Mary used it as a punchline in "Saved" -- get some new material.
2007-07-17 08:23:59
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answer #1
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answered by parcequilfaut 4
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This is a good point. However, as I understand it, wasn't the story of the virgin birth attributed retroactively? In other words, isn't it possible that Mary was hailed a virgin *after* Jesus was declared The Messiah, in order to validate the prophecy? Otherwise, wouldn't Jesus have been declared the Messiah at birth rather than while in his 30s, as was the case?
Isn't it possible that Jesus was raised by a mother and father who were married? Is it possible that Jesus never said Mary was a virgin, but the Apostles created the story in order to shoe-horn him into the existing prophecy?
2007-07-17 09:32:59
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answer #2
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answered by Peter D 7
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Hey, if I were living back then, I'd make the story up. Even now in some places, if a woman gets pregnant by a man that's not her husband, she will be killed. Even if it was a case of rape. It's seen as the woman's fault that she seduced the man into raping her. It's horrible. I think if it was between being stoned to death and being the mother of Christ, I'd choose the latter. But whether she was a virgin or not, I do believe that Jesus was a real person and a good person at that. Maybe not the son of god, but he was sure someone we should look up to. He didn't judge anyone, unlike many of his "followers" do.
2007-07-17 08:31:55
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answer #3
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answered by Xindy 4
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There are Christians who believe Mary did not have a virgin birth. I know one and he is one of the best people I have ever met. He is also a Minister.
I think that God can do anything He wants to do.
I have had the Holy Spirit enter into me ( He entered through my head) why should I doubt he could enter into Mary.
2007-07-17 08:28:57
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answer #4
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answered by Ruth 7
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They already look foolish.
A claim that is often made is concerning Isaiah 7:14. In the Book of Isaiah in the Old Testament of the Bible it states:
Therefore, the Lord himself will give you a sign, behold a young woman (almah) will conceive and bear a child and shall call his name Immanuel."
It is claimed that the above was a prophecy about the birth of Jesus to the Virgin Mary. It is further claimed that since the word Immanuel means "God with us," the person being talked about, i.e. Jesus was God.
The above quotation is from the King James Version of the Bible. The word translated as "virgin" is the wrong translation of the Hebrew word ALMAH. The word ALMAH in Hebrew means "young woman." The correct Hebrew word for virgin is BETHULAH. Since many young women begot children since those words were penned, it is not at all necessary that those words should apply to Jesus.
2007-07-17 08:33:51
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answer #5
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answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7
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If that was the case then what explains Jesus (Mary's son) and his miracles? And the fact of Elizabeth's(her cousin) elderly birth(John the Baptist)? Or the fact that Joseph was visited by an Angel? And the Star of Bethlahem? Or all the prophesies about Jesus and the "virgin birth"? Need I go on?
2007-07-17 08:29:34
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answer #6
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answered by gaby 2
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You think they don't look foolish enough already, especially with all the "end of the world, god hates gays, atheists worship the devil" banter? Just learning the basics of Judaism renders christianity false, so they really can't look any more foolish than they do now.
2007-07-17 08:50:29
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Why even ask this to the religious? They live with a rational that existed 2000 years ago. You can't even ask people like that a question and expect to get a sane answer. Seriously, they all need to be sent to one continent where they can attend day-care instead of jobs and have adults read them their little fairy tales all day.
2007-07-18 03:36:47
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answer #8
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answered by Jesus 1
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No, because Mary and whether or not there was a virgin birth has nothing to do with Jesus' teachings and the fact that Jesus was a full expression of God.
2007-07-17 08:29:27
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answer #9
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answered by starelda 4
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Mary, the mother of God, was born without sin. If she had just gotten herself into a spot of trouble, she would not have been the human mother of Jesus. And most likely, would have been executed in accordance with the laws of the time in which she lived.
2007-07-17 08:27:57
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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The truth would seem to be even more banal: Mary's virginity was written in long after the event, by a religion that detests sex in all its forms.
Prior to the rewriting of history, she was just a young woman, who got up the duff the way all young women do. Alas, such normal beginnings were too distastefully common for the monstrous organisation that arose thereafter, so they changed it all into miracles.
CD
2007-07-17 08:26:44
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answer #11
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answered by Super Atheist 7
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