Is it reasonable to conclude that an actual disciple of the apostle John would be in contradiction with his mentor's view on the deity of Christ ?
Ignatius' GENUINE writings indicate he believed that Christ was God.
Where did he get his doctrine from ? John, perhaps ? Are Ignatius' writings extra-biblical proof that John did indeed believe that Jesus Christ was God incarnate ?
http://www.ondoctrine.com/2jwh0003.htm
Thanks in advance for all replies.
2007-07-17
06:58:30
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4 answers
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asked by
Carlito
3
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Josie -
Interesting reply.
Are you quoting from the genuine or spurious epistles of Ignatius, and can you supply scholarly evidence to back up your claim, please ? Perhaps a web link ?
Thanks for your reply.
2007-07-17
07:09:39 ·
update #1
Josie -
Ignatius' comments in his letter to the Smyrnaeans (and also to the Philadelphians) regarding the Eucharist may be somewhat mystical in tone, but they hardly constitute a doctrinal statement affirming the validity of transubstantiation.
"..to have but one Eucharist. For there is one flesh of our Lord Jesus Christ, and one cup to (show forth) the unity of His blood" - Epistle to the Philadelphians.
Judge for yourself.
In regard to the use of the term "catholic" -
I'm sure that you are aware that the basic meaning of the word is "universal". In the context of church matters, it pertains to the one, universal church of blood-bought believers in the Lord Jesus Christ. Unfortunately, Rome in her customary arrogance hi-jacked the term and it is now (more often than not) associated with the many errors of the apostate Roman "church". This was NOT the context in which Ignatius used the word, the Roman Catholic church proper not being formed until centuries later.
2007-07-18
00:56:57 ·
update #2
So, Josie, to my original point.
What are your thoughts concerning that ?
2007-07-18
00:59:30 ·
update #3