All other translations have realized that the use of "Kill" is not only translationally wrong- it introduces an obvious contradiction as God had in the O.T. sponsored wars against populations that were totally given over to evil. Why doesn't the KJV fix the clear and obvious translational error?
2007-07-17 02:47:34 · 18 answers · asked by baronbago 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The KJ 1611 has a letter written to the reader that comes from the translators. It says that they did their best, but that they are human and to excuse some smaller errors, but also they ask you to realize that
when they translate over from the original languages, much of the deeper thought, or deeper message, gets lost in the translation.
They suggest that anything written that seems not to fit, that you go back to the manuscripts and check it out.
I guess they could fix it, along with other things like "unicorn" is really wild boar, etc.
But these things would not deter the disciplined student of the Word, since a newer student who is serious about the study would use a Strongs Exhaustive Concordance and a Companion Bible that would give you the actual word given in the manuscripts for each in the King James.
And for the more advanced student, we
read directly from the manuscripts in the original languages anyway, so we already read it as "murder".
If you ever read anything that seems inconsistant, or seems not to make sense,
that should be a clue that you need to check it out - its either a translational error, or else there is something you are missing. When you dig a bit deeper to find it, it usually ends up giving you even more revelation that you had before. Its a path worth taking is my point.
2007-07-17 02:57:07 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
The two words can be interchanged without confusion if the context of the verse is understood. There are no contradictions, even if the word "kill" is used if you understand that 1. God does not have to answer to man's standards, 2. Certain concepts, such as capital punishment and officers/soldiers are not included in the commandment due to other verses that lend support to these concepts.
Of the six major translations, three of the use the word "kill", the King James, American Standard and Revised Standard versions.
The other three use the word "murder", the New International, the New King James and the New American Standard.
Please note that the New King James is an updated version of the King James version.
2007-07-17 02:58:31 · answer #2 · answered by TG 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
DR Thou shalt not kill.
ERV Thou shalt do no murder.
KJV Thou shalt not kill.
VULG non occides
These are all from Deutoronomy 5:17. The Catholic Cannon of Sacred Scripture is interpreted into various langauges from the Latin Vulgate. And reads in the Douay-Rhiems in English . .. Thou shalt not kill. That's simple and succinct . .. But we do see that the Bible is not personally interproble, but is given inerrantly in faith and morals from OUR LORD THE ONE TRUE AND LIVING GOD . .. As to what it means "Do not kill" We should consult the Catholic Catechism as we say equally of THE CHURCH as the BODY OF CHRIST with JESUS CHRIST OUR LORD as our HEAD that we are inerrant in faith and morals. Therefore you should read the Catechism for a proper definition on what it means "Do not Kill" . .. I personally subscribe to the law of the prophets which dictates that those who kill with the sword shall be killed by the sword . .. do unto others as you would have done unto you . .. we do acknowledge that those who do not see cannot sin . .. that there is such a thing as a just war . .. that GOD wants peace, freedom, and security for the people of the Earth .. . that the harvest should come to fruition . .. while understanding that all scripture will be fulfilled, therefore there must be a falling away and tribulation before the end . .. From a personal standpoint i wouldn't hurt anyone, knowing that though i die, i shall yet LIVE . .. And wouldn't advocate war . .. but a willingness to die for one's conviction in the TRUTH . . . The CHURCH was built on the blood of martyrs the formost martyr being JESUS CHRIST OUR LORD who's LIFE GIVING BLOOD stustains us in the TRUE VINE . .. If we LOVE our enemies we want good things for them so we pray for them even though they would persecute us . . . A just war is fought for the peace, freedom, and security of the world, so that the harvest may grow to fruition . .. We are above the animals and have dominion over them so we may use them for food or purposes of man . .. we do see there's a lot to this commandment . .. you should consult the Catholic Catechism for more on what this simple statement means "Thou shat not kill" . ..
2007-07-17 04:10:55 · answer #3 · answered by jesusfreakstreet 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, if you start changing it then it is no longer the KJV but soemthing else, which is one reason we have all of teh other translations. Second, many people are very attached to the KJV, so any attempt to change it would bring a huge backlash.
It was changed in the New King James Version:
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=2&chapter=20&version=50
2007-07-17 02:54:41 · answer #4 · answered by John D 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Why does it still use the words "thou" and "shalt"? It's an older translation. If you take the 10 commandments in context with the rest of the old testament - it's pretty clear what God meant. The 10 Commandments were meant to be a summary, not everything. The book of Leviticus proves this.
2007-07-17 02:51:31 · answer #5 · answered by wigginsray 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
I would call it straining at a gnat - is there anyone that does not understand what thou shalt not kill means - and is there anyone that truly does not know that God has the authority to kill and do so by delegating others to do sl?
2015-03-02 23:45:38 · answer #6 · answered by Morris M 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The KJV translation was already made in 1611. You can't go back and revise it. If you make corrections, you are making a new translation, and can't call it the King James version.
2007-07-17 02:52:09 · answer #7 · answered by Diminati 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
there became a time while God became guidance a united states of america to be righteous for a Savior to return from. This united states of america became Israel. The rules for them have been such to be certain that all and sundry godless human beings ought to not infect that united states of america with evil. those rules noted as for the demise of people who became to something or everyone for education rather of their God. those rules are actually out of date. The old means the hot has made those rules out of date.
2016-09-30 04:35:21 · answer #8 · answered by lepeska 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All other translations didn't start with kill and change it to murder, they started with that. In the New King James it is translated murder.
2007-07-17 02:54:08 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
If you want to know what a word means get the greek for the New Testament, and the hebrew for the Old Testament. I am glad KJV doesnt change like these other perversions.
2007-07-17 02:53:32 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋