If we assume the following can phone polls be accurate?
1.a lot of poor people don't have phones
2.those that do have landlines and not cell phones
3. those that have landlines do not have caller ID as an added expense
4. if you do have caller ID a lot of people won't answer the phone when they see it is a telemarketer
Wouldn't that mean that a disproportionate number of poor people answer polls compared to moderate wealth and rich people.
Since poor people would like more help from the government, would they tend to be more democratic than republican?
2007-07-16
22:15:43
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Civic Participation