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A new tactic among Christian conservatives is to argue that substantively recognizing the equality of gays would require violating the First Amendment. Christians’ belief in God’s condemnation of homosexuality is claimed to be so important that forcing them to treat gays equally means forcing them to violate their religious beliefs.

Would it also be acceptable and legal to refuse to hire, rent to, serve or even join together in civil marriage people who eat pork (eating pork is a violation of the dietary restrictions of Islam and Judaism)? Would it be justified to discriminate against those who refuse to abide by such dietary restrictions?

2007-07-16 11:14:02 · 33 answers · asked by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

33 answers

Absolutely not. The constitution requires equal protection under the law of the rights of all, and those who are restricting the rights of people to public accommodation, employment, free speech and freedom of assembly are failing to live by that document, which in the courts, trumps everything.

^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^

2007-07-16 11:18:44 · answer #1 · answered by NHBaritone 7 · 11 0

No. I think that the only conditions under which all people are not treated equally should be if it is not practical to do so, for example, if a person cannot physically do a job or is not competent they should not be given it. I think allowances should be made to accommodate a persons beliefs but not at the expense of another person. I also wonder how medical, legal or professional ethics, for example, would be affected by this? Many professional ethical codes include guidelines on how a professional is supposed to act under certain circumstances such as a conflict of interest, and there may well be certain professions which would prevent people from practicing if they acted in this manner.

2007-07-16 11:28:32 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Interestingly we had a similar discussion here in the UK. The general feeling was that discrimination is against the law, whatever the basis for the discriminatory behaviour.

And while we don't have a Constitution, and hence a First Amendment wasn't there a ruling that could apply here? Oh, yes. Board of Education of Kiryas Joel Village School District v. Grumet, 512 U.S. 687 (1994), Justice David Souter, writing for the majority, concluded that "government should not prefer one religion to another, or religion to irreligion".

Since (as far as I am aware) Buddhists, Wiccans, Hindus and Ásatrú don't discriminate against homosexuals why should Christians be allowed to do so?
.

2007-07-16 11:32:00 · answer #3 · answered by Nobody 5 · 7 0

To the Christian conservatives who make this argument, I say go back and read your Bible again. While there are restrictions in the OLD Testament (Leviticus, I believe), Jesus taught that we were to treat our enemies with love and respect, turn the other cheek, etc. etc. They should reread (or read for the first time) Matthew 5:38-48. They will see that treating gays unfairly or condeming them (Hmmm, violating the Judge not lest ye shall be judged rule?) is AGAINST Jesus' teachings. Again, these "Christians" are using bits and pieces of the Bible to make their hate-mongering more "acceptable" to others. Treating Gays equally does not violate Christian religious beliefs, it affirms them.

To live in a society means they must abide by it's rules (render unto Ceasar...). My rights end at your nose and vice/versa. If my rights violate yours then I am the abuser and you are the victim. Likewise, for these conservative ninnies to violate the God given OR government given rights of others makes THEM the abuser.

Sorry to rant so, I just get a little peevish this time of day.

Good journeys, peace, and love.

A grouchy old crone!

Asha
(And in case you you're wondering, I'm straight, Pagan, and very proud of my friends, some of whom happen to have different religious beliefs as well as different sexual orientations from me).

2007-07-16 11:24:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 5 0

If there ever comes a time in my life, as a conservative christian, to choose mans laws or Gods..I will choose Gods law everytime. Having said that, God would never discriminate and neither should His followers. God often chose to fellowship with the publicans and sinners, leaving the self righteous religious bunch to fellowship with themselves. Being a true follower of Jesus Christ, I would never want to be part of the "religious" crowd. Truly knowing Jesus doesnt have anything to do with "religion" at all; but it has everything to do with "relationship". I believe, based on the Bible that lieing is wrong, killing is wrong, adultry is wrong, homosexuality is wrong, etc, etc, etc....but none can forget that Jesus says, "He that is without sin, cast the first stone." Guess what? That leaves no stones to be thrown..not by you at christians or by christians at anyone else. All believers should treat others the way Jesus did, with love and forgiveness. It is God that changes a person and brings them to all truth..our job is simply to love them and let the light of Jesus shine in us. But right will always be right and wrong will always be wrong and it will never be discrimnatory to say so.

2007-07-24 10:34:21 · answer #5 · answered by hapygrl68 2 · 0 0

Absolutely not, It is not Godly to mistreat anyone. Jesus accepted sinners he condemned judgment of people by people. Read the New testament and see how he treated the woman caught in adultery. He encouraged her to sin no more rather than stone her as her accusers wanted.

This is also why Theocrasies don't work. Religion is a personal spritual experience. No one religious group can be objective enough to handle the workings of a country.

"Render unto Ceasar what is of Ceasar"

Yes FAN...you can say you believe homosexuality is wrong but you can not violate their rights.

2007-07-16 11:23:04 · answer #6 · answered by margherita 4 · 4 0

What part of ILLEGAL are you missing?

You really should also read the first amendment before referring to it.

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

2007-07-16 11:24:19 · answer #7 · answered by ? 5 · 0 0

Discrimination against people over such TRIVILATIES listed in your question is unconscionable and stupid.

(BTW -- you should put *quotes* around "Christian" when associating them with such louts. The people to which you refer are the hateful and ignorant PSEUDO-Christians of the "Religious" Radical Right (the RRR Cult). Who should NEVER be confused with the normal and actual 94% of America's professing Christians who are your sensible, workaday, normal and tolerant next-door neighbors. NON-obnoxious and UNobtrusive people who live and let live, and shun busybodyism and control-freakism.)

2007-07-16 11:24:04 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

I'm Christian........ I know it say in the Bible that man and woman will not lay with the same sex. But I have alot friends who are gay. I do not like it, but I will past judgement on them it is not my place.
We as people have no right to discriminate against anyone. I know that sometimes everyone feels that we have no rights. But we have more rights then most places in the world. I'm sorry you feel the way you do. But as Christian try not to past judgement on anyone.

2007-07-18 15:47:47 · answer #9 · answered by Bird Lady 2 · 0 0

Yes fan with this tolerance u can say that homosexuality is bad, and u can practice your religion, however u have no right to force homosexuals to change or join your religion, or stone people who disagree with u like in your "holy" old testament. That's the way it is.

2007-07-20 22:56:21 · answer #10 · answered by RiS85 3 · 0 0

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