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2007-07-16 04:22:46 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I'm Catholic my boyfriend is Evangelic. I'm going to both churches so I wanted to buy a new Bible...

2007-07-16 07:58:03 · update #1

14 answers

The New Testament canon of the Catholic Bible and the Protestant Bible are the same with 27 Books.

The difference in the Old Testaments actually goes back to the time before and during Christ’s life. At this time, there was no official Jewish canon of scripture.

The Jews in Egypt translated their choices of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek in the second century before Christ. This translation of 46 books, called the Septuagint, had wide use in the Roman world because most Jews lived far from Palestine in Greek cities. Many of these Jews spoke only Greek.

The early Christian Church was born into this world. The Church, with its bilingual Jews and more and more Greek-speaking Gentiles, used the books of the Septuagint as its Bible. Remember the early Christians were just writing the documents what would become the New Testament.

After the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem, with increasing persecution from the Romans and competition from the fledgling Christian Church, the Jewish leaders came together and declared its official canon of Scripture, eliminating seven books from the Septuagint.

The books removed were Tobit, Judith, 1 Maccabees, 2 Maccabees, Wisdom (of Solomon), Sirach, and Baruch. Parts of existing books were also removed including Psalm 151 (from Psalms), parts of the Book of Esther, Susanna (from Daniel as chapter 13), and Bel and the Dragon (from Daniel as chapter 14).

The Christian Church did not follow suit but kept all the books in the Septuagint. 46 + 27 = 73 Books total.

1500 years later, Protestants decided to keep the Catholic New Testament but change its Old Testament from the Catholic canon to the Jewish canon. The books they dropped are sometimes called the Apocrypha.

Here is a Catholic Bible website: http://www.nccbuscc.org/nab/bible/

With love in Christ.

2007-07-17 16:30:57 · answer #1 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0 0

No. The Catholic Bible also includes the Apocrypha. The Apocrypha means 'hidden things' in Greek. The Apocryphical books of the Bible fall into two categories: texts which were included in some canonical version of the Bible at some point, and other texts of a Biblical nature which have never been canonical.

including Judith, the Wisdom of Solomon, Tobit, Sirach (or Ecclesiasticus), Baruch, First and Second Maccabees, the two Books of Esdras, various additions to the Book of Esther (10:4-10), the Book of Daniel (3:24-90;13;14), and the Prayer of Manasseh.

2007-07-16 11:33:24 · answer #2 · answered by L.C. 6 · 1 0

No


The idea that all revealed truth is to be found in "66 books" is not only not in Scripture, it is contradicted by Scripture (1 Corinthians 11:2, 2 Thessalonians 2:15, 2 Thessalonians 3:6, 1 Timothy 3:15, 2 Peter 1:20-21, 2 Peter 3:16). It is a concept unheard of in the Old Testament, where the authority of those who sat on the Chair of Moses (Matthew 23:2-3) existed. In addition to this, for 400 years, there was no defined canon of "Sacred Scripture" aside from the Old Testament; there was no "New Testament"; there was only Tradition and non-canonical books and letters.




Protestants claim the Bible is the only rule of faith, meaning that it contains all of the material one needs for theology and that this material is sufficiently clear that one does not need apostolic tradition or the Church’s magisterium (teaching authority) to help one understand it. In the Protestant view, the whole of Christian truth is found within the Bible’s pages. Anything extraneous to the Bible is simply non-authoritative, unnecessary, or wrong—and may well hinder one in coming to God.

Catholics, on the other hand, recognize that the Bible does not endorse this view and that, in fact, it is repudiated in Scripture. The true "rule of faith"—as expressed in the Bible itself—is Scripture plus apostolic tradition, as manifested in the living teaching authority of the Catholic Church, to which were entrusted the oral teachings of Jesus and the apostles, along with the authority to interpret Scripture correctly

2007-07-17 17:50:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If you mean do they use the KJV, no they don't. I don't see anything wrong with that either. Of course, one is always free to buy a King James Version if they want to. The Catholic Bible will have more about Church history in the pages that aren't scriptural. Other than that, there may be some books that Catholics don't use and that Evangelicals do but I'm sure someone will have the answer to this. Father K. probably..blessings

2007-07-16 11:27:51 · answer #4 · answered by Yogini 6 · 1 1

Stick with the Catholic bible, it's the correct one. The evangelists (protestants) took books out of the bible years ago because they didn't like them and screwed everything up. Stick with the Catholic Church. I used to be protestant but became Catholic after much study and research, so I know what I'm talking about.

2007-07-19 22:26:18 · answer #5 · answered by Danny H 6 · 0 0

It really is sad that all of the non-Catholics answering this question really do not know a thing about the books that Luther removed.

The books Luther removed are NOT about church history.

You know, the King James Version originally did carry all the same scriptures as Catholic bibles. They 7 books, as well as parts of Esther and Daniel were removed later by the Puritans.

Jesus himself quotes heavily from the Book of Tobit. The Book of Wisdom is all about the Holy Spirit. How can anyone claim their bible is a product of the Holy Spirit when they've removed the one book devoted TO the Holy Spirit?

As a few have said - the oldest Jewish scriptures all contain the same books as the Catholic OT. Those books were not removed until much later. Around the year 90 - the Jews called a council. At that council they removed from their scriptures any books which supported the budding Christian faith.

400 years later Martin Luther decided this was cool and followed their lead. Do you understand? Martin Luther's removal of those books came from and Anti-Christian Council. Luther also wanted to remove the Book of Esther because he felt Esther was "too Jewish." Well? Isn't Jesus as Jewish as they come? He also wanted to remove Revelation but the people wouldn't have it.

Luther then went on to become a massive persecuter of Jews and Catholics.

2007-07-16 11:49:26 · answer #6 · answered by Max Marie, OFS 7 · 5 0

We Catholics use the Bible in its original form with all the books still in it. In the 16th century, a man named Martin Luther removed seven books from the Bible which had always been a part of the original Jewish scriptures. They had been present in the manuscripts used by Jesus and the apostles, called the Septuagint. But I will explain it further below...

Distrusting the Latin Vulgate Bible, because it was relied on by the Catholic Church, Luther decided to translate his Bible into German from the original languages. The earliest forms of the New Testament writings were in Greek, so Luther translated his New Testament from Greek.

It was known that most of the Old Testament had originally been written in Hebrew. So Luther wanted to translate his German Old Testament from the Hebrew texts.

In this he was following St Jerome, who had sought out old Hebrew manuscripts to produce the Latin Vulgate Bible in 406 AD. However, when Luther obtained Hebrew manuscripts from the Jews "of his time", he found that the seven Books in question were not in their Canon of Scripture. This strengthened his resolve to remove the Books. The Jews, he argued, were the Guardians of the Old Testament, so he would use their Old Testament.

BUT...................

The OLDEST existing versions of the Jewish Old Testament DO INCLUDE the Seven Books. It is from these versions that the early Christian Scriptures were made. The best, oldest and most complete version of the Jewish Old Testament we know today is called The Septuagint, and this INCLUDES the books that Luther deleted.

Hope this helps. God bless.


*edit*

tamil - It was the Catholic Church that decided what books were inspired and would be included in what we know today as "The Holy Bible." And these seven books you are calling "extra books" are not "extras." They have always been a part of scripture and were removed less than 600 years ago by protestants. How can you speak regarding this when you know so little about it?

2007-07-16 11:33:37 · answer #7 · answered by The Raven † 5 · 7 0

No, the Bible most non-Catholics use has seven books missing from teh Old Testament. These books had been a part of teh Bible since the early fourth century, but were removed from teh Bible in the 1500 by the Protestant "reformers"

The Book of Macabees is the only Old Testament book where you will read about the resurrection of the body. This is what the first poster calls heresy?

2007-07-16 11:34:29 · answer #8 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 3 1

In short....no.

The Hebrew version of the OT (here after called Masoretic) contained the 66 books of the bible. Alexander the Great (in Egypt) ordered that a copy of all of the world's great books be translated into Greek for his glorious library. Seventy-two Jewish scholars translated the OT into Greek -- it is called the Septuagint (from the word for 70). Included in the Septuagint were 6 other books that Protestants call Apocryphal and Catholics call Deuterocanonical.

Jesus and the apostles and the early church used the Septuagint version -- not Masoretic text -- of the Scriptures because Greek was used throughout the area. Palestine was ruled by Rome at the time of Jesus but even the Romans were enamored of all things Greek -- thus Greek was the language used. (Note: Jesus and his apostles spoke Aramaic -- now called Ancient Syriac -- for their everyday language).

Fast forward to AD 70. The Romans destroyed the Temple and Judaism basically had to re-invent itself because there is no more temple in which to offer sacrifice, which of course, they did daily.

Now it's AD 90 and leading Jews gather in council in Jamnia/Yavneh to discuss these things. It is decided to drop these 6 books from their Scriptures because they are Christocentric in nature and speak of things such as praying for the dead, purgatory and messianism. These are the books that Christians were using to prove that Jesus is the Christ. It is also at this council that a definitive break is made between Jews and the new sect within Judaism -- Christianity -- which is now seen as heretical because they worship a "mere" man.

Protestants, then, opt to use the Masoretic text for the same reason as the Jews.....because of the "Catholic" teachings in them.

At the time of King James (who was notoriously gay, by the way), there were many faulty translations of the bible. No Protestant to this day ever uses the Tynedale or Wycliffe bibles because they contained over 1,000 errors. King James then (who ruled as James VI in Scotland and James I in England) commissioned a newer translation. He DID NOT write it himself! The original edition of the KVJ written in 1611 DID contain the 6 books in dispute.

As for Jerome, he translated the bible into Latin because Latin was the "new" everyday language of the western part of the Roman empire. Remember that Constantine was the emporer in the 4th century and he divvied up the kingdom into East -- which kept the Greek -- and West -- which used Latin. It is also about this time that the Catholic liturgy (Mass) switched from being in Greek to being in Latin because that was the language of the people in the western part of the empire.

Source(s):

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.j... (read under the heading of Aquila)

2007-07-16 11:42:54 · answer #9 · answered by The Carmelite 6 · 3 0

More or less. We took some books out of the old testament so it lined up with the Jews canonized scripture.

2007-07-16 11:53:21 · answer #10 · answered by nom de paix 4 · 0 1

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