Jehovah's name is everywhere in the new testament in the NWT
Matt4:10 ; Mr12:29; Ac2:34 ; Ac 21:14
Rom14:8; rom15:11; 1cor10:21; 26 ; 2 Cor 3:17
2007-07-15 19:45:36
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answer #1
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answered by debbie2243 7
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"Jehovah" is used over 200 times in the NWT where the words "lord" and "god" appear in the original Greek. I believe I read on Yahoo Answers that there are some other versions of the Bible that use "Jehovah" in the New Testament, also, but not as many places, and not necessarily the same scriptures as the NWT.
Since "Jehovah' isn't in the original Greek of the New Testament, there is no agreement among translators as to where to insert the name. It just depends on the opinion of the translator, wherever they want to change it.
2007-07-16 10:57:59
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answer #2
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answered by browneyedgirl 3
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The NKJV contains Jehovah's name in all places that are quotations of the OT.
The NKJV keeps the name as LORD in those places.
Even the KJV has LORD in caps in the NT at Acts 2:34.
Most bibles use LORD instead of using Jehovah's name.
This is the same as your friends and family calling you PERSON every time they talk to you are refer to you, instead of using your name.
This is my son 'PERSON',
'PERSON' is at work today,
'PERSON' and I are going fishing, want to come?
Don't you just feel the love they have for you?
A good test of the quality of a translation is "Are the translators honest enough to use God's name, either Jehovah or Yahweh,
Or are they afraid of going against 'traditions of man'?
Why did the recently published “New International Version” (NIV) of the Bible fail to use the name of God where it appears about 7,000 times in ancient Bible manuscripts? In response to a person who inquired about this,
Edwin H. Palmer, Th.D., Executive Secretary for the NIV’s committee wrote:
“Here is why we did not: You are right that Jehovah is a distinctive name for God and ideally we should have used it. But we put 2 1/4 million dollars into this translation and a sure way of throwing that down the drain is to translate, for example, Psalm 23 as, ‘Yahweh is my shepherd.’ Immediately, we would have translated for nothing. Nobody would have used it. Oh, maybe you and a handful [of] others. But a Christian has to be also wise and practical. We are the victims of 350 years of the King James tradition. It is far better to get two million to read it—that is how many have bought it to date—and to follow the King James, than to have two thousand buy it and have the correct translation of Yahweh. . . . It was a hard decision, and many of our translators agree with you.”
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Since we don't have the originals, and only copies does that mean that the originals didn't contain God's name?
Please note:
Wolfgang Feneberg comments in the Jesuit magazine Entschluss/Offen (April 1985): “He [Jesus] did not withhold his father’s name YHWH from us, but he entrusted us with it. It is otherwise inexplicable why the first petition of the Lord’s Prayer should read: ‘May your name be sanctified!’” Feneberg further notes that “in pre-Christian manuscripts for Greek-speaking Jews, God’s name was not paraphrased with kýrios [Lord], but was written in the tetragram form [YHWH] in Hebrew or archaic Hebrew characters. . . . We find recollections of the name in the writings of the Church Fathers;
Professor George Howard of the University of Georgia wrote: “Since the Tetragram [four Hebrew letters for the divine name] was still written in the copies of the Greek Bible which made up the Scriptures of the early church, it is reasonable to believe that the N[ew] T[estament] writers, when quoting from Scripture, preserved the Tetragram within the biblical text.”—Journal of Biblical Literature, March 1977, p. 77.
“In pre-Christian Greek [manuscripts] of the O[ld] T[estament], the divine name (yhwh) was not rendered by ‘kyrios’ [lord] as has often been thought. Usually the Tetragram was written out in Aramaic or in paleo-Hebrew letters. . . . At a later time, surrogates [substitutes] such as ‘theos’ [God] and ‘kyrios’ replaced the Tetragram . . . There is good reason to believe that a similar pattern evolved in the N[ew] T[estament], i.e. the divine name was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the OT, but in the course of time it was replaced by surrogates.”—“New Testament Abstracts,” 3, 1977, p. 306.
The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 649) says: “One of the most fundamental and essential features of the biblical revelation is the fact that God is not without a name: he has a personal name, by which he can, and is to be, invoked.” Jesus certainly had that name in mind when he taught his followers to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.”—Matthew 6:9.
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If there are copies of Early Church Fathers (as one scholar put it) using Jehovah's name. Where did they find it?
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2007-07-16 08:50:27
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answer #3
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answered by TeeM 7
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i have a kjv red letter and in the back of the bible, the bible dictionary, it explains that jehovah was removed by the king and replaced with LORD in all caps. that would be different than Lord as in jesus or and man esp. those called lord by their wives. so when you see LORD, it's replacing Yahweh or Jehovah
2007-07-16 02:29:06
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answer #4
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answered by slkrchck 6
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YES.
Rev. 19:1,3,4,6 Praise Jah (praise Jehovah)
2007-07-16 11:43:16
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answer #5
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answered by keiichi 6
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No, In the KJV, the jewish custom was followed, and the name is generally denoted by Lord of God, printed in small capitals.
2007-07-16 02:27:12
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answer #6
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answered by Laura S 2
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Nowhere mentioned. Bible only speaks about God but word eel, eelie whch is hebrew of Allah or Ilah is mentioned there.
2007-07-16 02:28:47
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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not that I know of...NWT is a bad translation.
The greek jews did not want His name to be blasphemied , disrespected and abused so they have used the word Adonai or Lord instead......in English, LORD, or LORD GOD in caps is used instead of using His sacred name.
2007-07-16 02:27:21
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answer #8
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answered by Ms DeeAnn 5
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Not in the KJV.
2007-07-16 02:24:39
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answer #9
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answered by rndyh77 6
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