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I'm not looking for the IRS code. I'm looking for the EXACT Penal code or statute or law that requires us Americans to pay a Federal Income Tax. Individual income, not corporate profits. Thank you!

2007-07-15 14:51:53 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance Taxes United States

Ok...so far noone here has given me a straightforward, direct, honest answer.

I just want the exact statute or law or penal code or whatever.

Not the typical, non-sequiteurial answers of government types.

WHAT IS THE ANSWER?

Again; Thank you.

2007-07-16 00:18:02 · update #1

Are you saying then that no tax law existed until 1986?

2007-07-16 00:19:19 · update #2

Wow...I'm sensing a lot of hostility...but no direct answer. Lot's of non-sequieurs to (sigh). But that's to be expected from gov't workers I guess.

BTW...ALL answers are going onto my blog.

Again; Thank you.

2007-07-16 13:38:24 · update #3

8 answers

The Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and subsequent amendments since is the "positive law". A "positive law" is one that is passed by Congress and signed into law by a President. Title 26 of the U.S. Code is prima facie law. Prima facie law is a direct writing of the positive law. Courts will refer to the prima facie law first, but if there is any argument that it does not accurately reflect the positive law, the courts will look up the applicable sections in the U.S. Statutes at Large.

BTW, the actual text of the Internal Revenue Code can be found in the U.S. Statutes at Large. You can find these or request portions at Federal Depository Libraries.
http://www.gpoaccess.gov/libraries.html

The beginning of the Internal Revenue Code that we use today is the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. It was relabeled with minor changes in 1986 as the aforementioned IRC of 1986. The IRC of 1954 can be found in the U.S. Statutes at Large, Volume 68A, beginning on page 3.

Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 1, Subchapter A, Part 1 is titled, "Tax on Individuals"

Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 1, Subchapter A, Part 2 covers corporations

Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 1, Subchapter A, Part 1, § 1
states in various paragraphs, "There is hereby imposed on the taxable income of—". It continues from there covering married individuals, single individuals, head of household individuals, estates and trusts, income of dependent children, etc.

EDIT: I did give you the answer and if you read the third paragraph of my answer, you would know that the income tax laws existed BEFORE 1986. Anyway, the Revenue Act of 1861 was the first federal income tax. Before that, there were various tariffs that taxed income of only a portion of the population. The tax code in use today got its basic structure from the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. There were other Revenue Acts in 1913, 1916, 1917, 1918, 1921 and many other years.

The current law is called the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and with subsequent amendments is codified in the U.S. Code as Title 26.

EDIT: Ok, here's a DIRECT ANSWER. TITLE 26 of the U.S. CODE. Subtitle A, Chapter 1, Subchapter A, Part 1, § 1
"There is hereby imposed on the taxable income of ..."

and

TITLE 26, Subtitle F, CHAPTER 75, Subchapter A - CRIMES

BTW, it is NON-SEQUITUR. You are the one that has formed a conclusion that does not follow the evidence.

2007-07-15 15:27:38 · answer #1 · answered by NGC6205 7 · 3 2

Actually, fewer than 1 percent of those who file taxes get audited according the IRS. Secondly, be sure to tell that to a revenue officer when they are in the process of prosecuting you for tax evasion. I assume as an American Citizen you demand and expect certain goods and services from your government (at all levels). If you say yes, then you need to realize that those goods and services cost money. If nobody paid thier taxes you couldn't have a government be able to provide you with the basic services. Lot's of people ask why we don't have national heathcare, well now you know. If you want something you have to pay for it. You should also re-read the constituion, because there is language in it that reads, congress shall have the right to lay and collect taxes. Congress can't do everything so they created the IRS. Unless you are asking a rhetorical question your logic is going to put you in a federal prison. Nobody fights the IRS and wins.

2016-04-01 06:03:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Federal tax law begins with the Internal Revenue Code (IRC), enacted by Congress in Title 26 of the United States Code (26 U.S.C.). This is the law.

A penal code can be defined as that portion of a state's laws that deal with defining the elements of particular crimes and specifying the punishment for each crime.

Elo Fudpucker is wrong. Without a law there can be no enforcement of anything. The tax code is the law that does what he thinks can be done simply if you don't comply with nothing. Also, you do not get thrown in jail for failing to file a return. You get thrown in jail upon conviction of tax evasion.

The 16th Amendment to the Constitution was the enabling act that is the basis for the tax code.

"Amendment XVI. The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived..."

For decades there have been urban legends to the effect that you do not have to pay taxes, there is no law, or that paying tax is voluntary. It is all wishful thinking.

2007-07-15 14:55:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

16th Amendment to the Constitution of the United States of America. It is not a penal code, income tax is not a crime so it won't be in a penal code. When you get your Booklet for your 1040 it will state the exact codes you are looking for . . . or another way to find out is NOT pay your income taxes and when you get audited, or arrested just read the charges against you and it will specify very clearly which laws you are violating. I suggest starting with the 16th amendment and th 1040 booklet.

2007-07-15 15:03:34 · answer #4 · answered by Yahoo S 3 · 0 3

You've got a boatload of good answers. The fact that you choose to ignore them basically makes you irrelevant, not the answers.

FYI, penal codes do not direct actions that citizens must take, they spell out the penalty for breaking the law. There is no "penal code" that directs that you need to pay income taxes.

2007-07-16 02:34:57 · answer #5 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0 1

26 U.S.C. § 1 (a)
There is hereby imposed on the taxable income of—
(1) every married individual (...)
a tax determined in accordance with the following table:

If taxable income is: The tax is:
Not over $36,900 15% of taxable income.
(...)
26 U.S.C. § 7201
Any person who willfully attempts in any manner to evade or defeat any tax imposed by this title or the payment thereof shall, in addition to other penalties provided by law, be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction thereof, shall be fined not more than $100,000 ($500,000 in the case of a corporation), or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both, together with the costs of prosecution.

2007-07-15 19:42:47 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

16th Amendment to the United States Constitution.

2007-07-15 14:55:56 · answer #7 · answered by avenger 2 · 1 3

There is no law for paying federal income tax, but they will put you in jail for failure to file a tax return, and then take everything you have if you don't pay up....Nuf Said

2007-07-15 14:55:51 · answer #8 · answered by Elo Fudpucker 5 · 1 8

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