In Divine texts God refers to himself in the most majestic terms.
Just like in some ancient kingdoms the courts would refer to the King in the plural sense to show honor and majesty.
THIS is exactly why the words in Aramaic and Arabic words which refer to God in the Absolute single tense – they are impossible to be used in the plural sense but when they are TRANSLATED, to show their majestic meaning in the original language, they are made into WE and US .
In Hebrew, G-d is never once referred to in the plural, always in the singular. Those who do not speak Hebrew think His name is plural. Elokim is a plural noun. But, in Hebrew, the verbs always have to match the nouns, so if the noun is plural, so must the verb be. However, whenever Elokim is used, the verb following is ALWAYS singular. So we know that Elokim is an irregular word and has a plural ending but is actually singular.
This is an example of the EXTREME danger when Revealed books are translated and re-translated without keeping the original Aramaic, Arabic or Hebrew text with knowledge of the original language it was revealed in.
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2007-07-15 01:45:22 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Funny. Nobody else sees it that way.
2007-07-15 01:49:19 · answer #1 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"So we know that Elokim is an irregular word and has a plural ending but is actually singular."
Well that kind of sums it up...God has a plural ending but is actually singular. Three in one.
The doctrine of the Trinity is more then just the use of plural words. It is the understanding of Christ and who he is. It is the view of scripture as a whole, old and new testaments. They must be read in light of each other. The scriptures are multi-dimensional...they cannot be looked at from one perspective. You have to look at it from all sides in order to ascertain the meaning.
2007-07-15 08:54:47 · answer #2 · answered by Misty 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Why I can’t believe in the royal we, idea to Genesis 1:26 and 3:22,
If Jehovah talked with the royal we or us, etc, why did He only do it only 4-5 times.
Why didn’t He or doesn’t He continue to do to so through out the bible.
Why didn’t He use the royal we at Gen. 1:29, 30 only 3 verses later, or Gen. 2:18, Gen. 3:11, 15
and through out the rest of the bible? Why at Isa. 6:8, does Jehovah say “Whom shall I send”?
Job 38:4-7 shows that the angels were existing at the creation of man, so Jehovah wasn’t alone and had many spirit creatures to talk to.
Instead, which sounds more real and truthful, that Jehovah was talking to someone who is His Master Worker, His Firstborn Son, His Faithful Witness, who is His image, His exact representation, OR He was talking to Himself. (Prov. 8:30; Heb. 1:3; Col 1:15)
Bible scholar Donald E. Gowan said “There is no support in the O[ld] T[estament] for most of the proposed explanations: the royal ‘we,’ the deliberative ‘we,’ the plural of fullness, or an indication of a plurality of persons in the Godhead.
Why does the word Elohim according to Strong’s Cyclopaedia, when it applies to Jehovah means Supreme God, not Gods? Even when this word is applied to Moses (Ex. 4:16 & 7:1) it doesn’t mean that there are 3 Moses, it doesn’t even mean there are 2 Moses.
(Side point when Jesus said if you see me you see the Father, it is because he is the image of God, the exact representation of his Father. When you see an image in a mirror you are seeing a representation, not the actual person. Col 1:15)
(Side point, According to my college dictionary, begotten means “to be born”, to be born means “brought into life or being” when was Jesus brought into life, when he came to life as a baby? No, as Jehovah’s Firstborn of creation Col. 1:15; Rev 3:14)
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2007-07-16 11:12:48 · answer #3 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it isn't just a matter of pronouns. Jesus Christ repeatedly revealed Himself as divine, and He repeatedly spoke of the Father and the Holy Spirit, referring to both of them as "He", indicating personhood. At the baptism of Jesus, all three divine Persons were present, apparent, and acting independently. God the Son standing in the water, God the Father speaking audibly from heaven, and God the Holy Spirit descending upon Jesus in visible form.
Christians also believe in the Trinity because we believe the Bible is the Word of God; the Bible tells us that the Church is the foundation of truth, and that whatsoever the Church binds upon earth is bound in heaven; and the Church has dogmatically defined the fact of the Trinity. Therefore it is truth, de facto.
2007-07-15 08:50:01 · answer #4 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Once again..... YOU STATE FACTS..... NOT IN EVIDENCE!
Real Christians..... DO NOT BELIEVE.... IN A TRINITY!
That is simply.... A False Catholic Doctrine! As a Former Catholic..... I KNOW OF MANY TEACHINGS..... From the Catholic Church..... THAT ARE AGAINST THE BIBLE!
And you Hebrew statments about Elokim.... IS IN ERROR!
IT.... is used in Genesis 1.... And GOD SAID.... LET US..... Make Man....!
Once again....Many try to Disprove the Holy Scriptures..... and Fail to do so!
(Isaiah 44:6) Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.
AND......
(Exodus 3:14) And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
AND......
(John 8:55-to-59) Yet ye have not known him; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying.
(Joh 8:56) Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.
(Joh 8:57) Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?
(Joh 8:58) Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
(Joh 8:59) Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.
GOD... is the ..... I AM....!
JESUS.... is the .... I AM....!
LOOK.... at John 8:59.....! The JEWS..... were trying to Stone.... HIM.... JESUS.... because HE... said..... HE WAS THE ..... I... AM....!
They ... UNDERSTOOD..... Why Can't..... YOU......?
Thnaks, RR
2007-07-15 08:56:04 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
To the first answerer, you have a good argument, and I agree with you, but one always hurts their case when the get offensive with their explanation.
Saying "Forget you, man!" is not a cool thing to say. Let your argument or your points speak for themselves without having to resort to anger.
2007-07-15 11:17:59 · answer #6 · answered by Mello Yello 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I prefer the original texts
ââ
2007-07-19 08:38:24 · answer #7 · answered by Tegarst 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋